PRELIMS CURRENT AFFAIRS-11/07/24

01. With reference to International Maritime Council, consider the following statements:

1. India, an elected member of the IMO Council in the category of countries, participated in the 132nd session of the IMO Council which was held in London.
2. The Council is the executive organ of IMO and is responsible, under the Assembly, for supervising the work of the Organization
3. The Council is made up of 40 Member States, elected by the Assembly for five year terms.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Answer:  (b)Only two

In News:India Leads Global Maritime Discourse at IMO Council Session in London

Explanation:

• A high-level Indian delegation, led by Shri T.K. Ramachandaran, Secretary, Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, is participating in the 132nd session of the Council of the International Maritime Organization (IMO) in London.
• India, an elected member of the IMO Council in the category of countries with the largest interest in international seaborne trade, emphasized the urgent issue of seafarer abandonment.Hence statement 1 is correct.
•  The delegation pointed out that despite efforts, there are currently 44 active cases involving 292 Indian seafarers. 
• India’s strong stance on the need for effective measures and oversight to resolve such issues was well received.
• The Council is the executive organ of IMO and is responsible, under the Assembly, for supervising the work of the Organization.Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• The Council is made up of 40 Member States, elected by the Assembly for two-year terms.Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• The Indian delegation also addressed concerns over disruptions in the Red Sea, Gulf of Aden, and adjoining areas, which have been impacting shipping and trade logistics.
•  Highlighting India’s commitment to maritime safety and security, the delegation cited two significant incidents where the Indian Navy successfully intervened. T
• hese included the rescue of a Marshall Island-flagged crude oil carrier, MV Marlyn Luanda, and the interception of the vessel MV Ruen off the coast of Somalia, ensuring the safety of crew members and handling piracy threats effectively.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2032130

02. With reference to  IMO’s global Maritime Technology Cooperation Centres, consider the following statements:

Statement -I:

Funded by the World bank and implemented by the International Maritime Organization, the Global MTCC Network formally titled “Capacity Building for Climate Mitigation in the Maritime Shipping Industry

Statement -II: 

Developing countries and, in particular, Least Developed Countries and Small Islands Developing States, are the main beneficiaries of this ambitious initiative.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement – I and Statement – II are correct and Statement – II is the correct explanation for Statement – I
2. Both Statement – I and Statement – II are correct and Statement – II is not the correct explanation for Statement – I
3. Statement – I is correct but Statement – II is incorrect
4. Statement – I is incorrect but Statement – II is correct

Answer:  (d) Statement – I is incorrect but Statement – II is correct

In News:India Showcases Maritime Security Excellence and Proposes Innovative Regional Centre for Sustainable Maritime Transport

Explanation:

• A high-level Indian delegation, led by Shri T.K. Ramachandaran, Secretary, Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, is participating in the 132nd session of the Council of the International Maritime Organization (IMO) in London. 
• India, an elected member of the IMO Council in the category of countries with the largest interest in international seaborne trade, emphasized the urgent issue of seafarer abandonment. The delegation pointed out that despite efforts, there are currently 44 active cases involving 292 Indian seafarers. 
• India’s strong stance on the need for effective measures and oversight to resolve such issues was well received.
• Furthermore, India reiterated its proposal for the South Asian Centre of Excellence for Sustainable Maritime Transport (SACE-SMarT).
•  This regional hub aims to transform the maritime sector in India and South Asia into a technologically advanced, environmentally sustainable, and digitally proficient industry.
• The centre will focus on reducing greenhouse gas emissions, fostering technical cooperation, capacity-building, and digital transition. India’s leadership in evolving the SACE-SMarT in collaboration with the IMO’s global Maritime Technology Cooperation Centres (MTCCs) was highlighted as a significant step towards sustainable maritime development
• Funded by the European Union and implemented by the International Maritime Organization, the Global MTCC Network (GMN) – formally titled “Capacity Building for Climate Mitigation in the Maritime Shipping Industry ” – initiative unites technology centres – Maritime Technology Cooperation Centres (MTCCs) – in targeted regions into a global network.Hence statement 1 is incorrect
• Together, they are promoting technologies and operations to improve energy efficiency in the maritime sector and help navigate shipping into a low-carbon future.
• Developing countries and, in particular, Least Developed Countries and Small Islands Developing States, are the main beneficiaries of this ambitious initiative.Hence statement 2 is correct

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2032130

03. With reference to Paradip Port, Consider the following statements:

1. Paradip is one of the Major Ports of India.
2. It was the First  Major Port on the East Coast commissioned after independence. 
3. The Port of Paradip, an autonomous body under the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963 functioning under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1,2 3 

Answer:  (d) 1,2 3 

In News: Paradip Port Authority Sets New Record with 41.12 Million Metric Tons of Cargo Handling in First 100 Days of FY 2024-25

Explanation:

• Paradip Port Authority (PPA) has marked a momentous achievement in its operational history, clocking an unprecedented 41.12 Million Metric Tons (MMT) cargo handling within the first 100 days of the fiscal year 2024-25. 
• This outstanding performance sets a new record for the port, reflecting a 4.78 per cent growth compared to the 39.25 MMT achieved during the same period in the previous fiscal year, FY 2023-24.
• Paradip is one of the Major Ports of India. Late Biju Patnaik, the then Chief Minister of Odisha, is the founder father of Paradip Port.Hence statement 1 is correct
•  It is the only Major Port in the State of Odisha situated 210 nautical miles south of Kolkata and 260 nautical miles north of Visakhapatnam on the east coast on the shore of Bay of Bengal.
• The Government of India declared Paradip Port as the Eighth Major Port of India on 18th April 1966 making it the FIRST MAJOR PORT in the East Coast commissioned after independence.Hence statement 2 is correct 
• The Port of Paradip, an autonomous body under the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963 functioning under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways is administered by a Board of Trustees set up by the Government of India headed by the Chairman.Hence statement 3 is correct
• The Trustees of the Trust Board are nominated by the Government of India from various users of the Port such as shippers, ship owners, Government Departments concerned and also port labour. The day-to-day administration is carried out under general supervision and control of the Chairman, assisted by the Deputy Chairman and other departmental heads. 

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2032186

04. With reference to National Programme for Organic Production, consider the following statements:

1. The APEDA, Ministry of Commerce & Industries is implementing the National Programme for Organic Production.
2. The programme involves the accreditation of Certification Bodies, standards for organic production, promotion of organic farming and marketing.
3. Among all the states, Madhya Pradesh has covered largest area under organic certification followed by, Maharashtra, Rajasthan

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Answer: (c) All three

In News: Mutual Recognition Agreement between India and Taiwan for Organic Products

Explanation:

• The Mutual Recognition Agreement (MRA) for organic products between India and Taiwan has been implemented w.e.f. 8th July 2024 during the 9th Working Group on Trade Meeting with Taiwan at New Delhi. 
• The implementation of the MRA between India and Taiwan is a landmark achievement as it is the first bilateral agreement for organic products.
• The implementing Agencies for the MRA are Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA), Ministry of Commerce and Industry, India and Agriculture and Food Agency, Ministry of Agriculture (AFA), Taiwan.
• The APEDA, Ministry of Commerce & Industries, Government of India is implementing the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP).Hence statement 1 is correct 
• The programme involves the accreditation of Certification Bodies, standards for organic production, promotion of organic farming and marketing etc.Hence statement 2 is correct
• The NPOP standards for production and accreditation have been recognized by European Commission and Switzerland for unprocessed plant products as equivalent to their country standards. 
• With these recognitions, Indian organic products duly certified by the accredited certification bodies of India are accepted by the importing countries. APEDA is also in the process of negotiation with Australia, South Korea, Taiwan, Canada, Japan etc
• Among all the states, Madhya Pradesh has covered largest area under organic certification followed by, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Odisha, Sikkim, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Kerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.Hence statement 3 is correct

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/allRel.aspx

05. With reference to National Hydroelectric Power Corporation Ltd, Consider the following statements:

1. It was incorporated in 1975 under Companies Act, 1956.
2. The company is mandated to plan, promote and organise an integrated and efficient development of power in all its aspects through Conventional and Non-Conventional Sources in India and abroad.
3. It has also diversified in the field of Solar and Wind energy development.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1,2,3

Answer:  (d) 1,2,3

In News: Why locals are protesting against the Upper Siang hydropower project in Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation:

• The Upper Siang project is a proposed 11,000 megawatt hydropower project on the Siang river in the Upper Siang district of Arunachal Pradesh.
• The Siang originates near Mount Kailash in Tibet, where it goes by the name of Tsangpo. 
• It traverses more than 1,000 km eastward, before forming a horseshoe bend around the towering Namcha Barwa peak, and enters Arunachal Pradesh as the Siang.
•  Further downstream, in Assam, the river becomes the mighty Brahmaputra.
• NHPC Limited is the largest hydropower development organisation in India, with capabilities to undertake all the activities from conceptualization to commissioning of hydro projects.
•  NHPC has also diversified in the field of Solar & Wind energy development etc.Hence statement 3 is correct 
• NHPC Ltd. (Formerly known as National Hydroelectric Power Corporation Ltd.) was incorporated in 1975 under Companies Act, 1956.Hence statement 1 is correct  
• The company is mandated to plan, promote and organise an integrated and efficient development of power in all its aspects through Conventional and Non-Conventional Sources in India and abroad..Hence statement 2 is correct 
•  NHPC is a listed company on NSE and BSE after successfully concluding its IPO in 2009.

Source:

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/why-are-locals-protesting-against-a-mega-dam-project-in-arunachal-pradesh-9445669/

06.Consider the following:

1. Consumer Price Index for Rural
2. Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers 
3. Consumer Food Price Index for Rural

How many of the above Consumer Price Indices were released by NSO?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Answer:  (b) Only two

In News:Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (2016=100) – May, 2024

Explanation:

• The Labour Bureau, an attached office of the M/o Labour & Employment, has been compiling the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers every month on the basis of retail prices collected from 317 markets spread over 88 industrially important centres in the country. The index for the months of May, 2024 is being released in this press release.
• The National Statistical Office (NSO), erstwhile, Central Statistics Office (CSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) started releasing Consumer Price Indices (CPI) on base 2010=100 for All-India and States/UTs separately for Rural, Urban and Combined every month with effect from January, 2011. 
• Subsequently, MoSPI has revised the Base Year of the Consumer Price Index (CPI) from 2010=100 to 2012=100 with effect from the release of indices for the month of January, 2015. 

The Consumer Price Indices released by NSO are as follows: 

•  All India Group/Sub-group and General Consumer Price Index for Rural, Urban and Combined Sector.
•  All India Consumer Food Price Index for Rural, Urban and Combined Sector 
• State-wise Sub-group/Group/General Indices for Rural, Urban and Combined sectors in respect of Major States.Hence option (b) is correct

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2032059

07. Consider the following statements:

1. Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System  is an online platform available to the citizens 24×7 to lodge their grievances to the public authorities on any subject related to service delivery.
2. It is a single portal connected to all the Ministries/Departments of Government of India and States

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (d)Neither 1 nor 2

In News:The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) released the 23rd Report Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) for States/UTs

Explanation:

• The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) released the Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) 23rd monthly report for States/UTs for June, 2024.
•  The said report provides a detailed analysis of types and categories of public grievances and the nature of disposal by the States/UTs.
• A total of 69940 grievances were redressed by States and Union Territories in June, 2024. The pendency of grievances of States/UTs received on CPGRAMS portal stands at 195082 grievances across the States/UTs Governments, as of 30th June, 2024.
• Uttar Pradesh has received the maximum number of grievances in June, 2024 with the number standing at 18913 grievances. 14 States/UTs have received more than 1000 grievances in the month of June, 2024. 
• Uttar Pradesh and Assam disposed of the maximum number of grievances in June, 2024, with the number standing at 29708 and 4706 grievances respectively.
• Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) is an online platform available to the citizens 24×7 to lodge their grievances to the public authorities on any subject related to service delivery.Hence statement 1 is correct  
•  It is a single portal connected to all the Ministries/Departments of Government of India and States.Hence statement 2 is correct   
• Every Ministry and States have role-based access to this system. 
• CPGRAMS is also accessible to the citizens through standalone mobile application downloadable through Google Play store and mobile application integrated with UMANG.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2032225

08. Consider the following statements:

1. Censuses in British India between 1881 and 1931 enumerated all castes.
2. The Constitution permits reservation for the OBCs in education and public employment
3. In the first Census conducted after Independence in 1951, the Government of India  ordered that caste should not be enumerated

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1,2,3

Answer:  (d) 1,2,3

In News: The case for a caste Census

Explanation:

• A caste Census is crucial for four reasons — one, it is a social imperative. Caste continues to be a foundational social construct in India. Only about 5% of Indian marriages were inter-caste as of 2011-12. 
• The use of caste surnames and caste marks is still widespread. Residential segregation by caste persists. Choices of candidates for elections and ministers for Cabinets continue to be dictated by caste considerations.
• Censuses in British India between 1881 and 1931 enumerated all castes.Hence statement 1 is correct  
•  In thefirst Census conducted after Independence in 1951, the Government of India (GOI) ordered that caste should not be enumerated.Hence statement 2 is correct   
• However, an exception was made for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) which have been enumerated in every Census since 1951. 
• In 1961, the GOI advised States to conduct their own surveys and draw up State-specific OBC lists if they so desired. There was no reservation for OBCs in the Centre and its undertakings then. 
• Like the SCs and STs, the Constitution permits reservation for the OBCs in education (Article 15(4)) and public employment (Article 16(4)).Hence statement 3 is correct  
• After the implementation of the Mandal Commission recommendations, the OBCs enjoy reservations in the Central government and its undertakings as well. In the Indra Sawhney case (1992), the Supreme Court ruled that the OBC list, based on the 1931 Census, should be revised periodically.

Source:

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/the-case-for-a-caste-census/article68390396.ece

09. Consider the following statements:

1. The United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees is funded almost entirely by voluntary contributions from UN Member States.
2. It was established by United Nations General Assembly Resolution in 1949 to carry out direct relief and work programmes for Palestine refugees.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (c) Both 1 and 2

In News:Israeli Army asks Gaza City residents to evacuate as it steps up offensive

Explanation:

• The Israeli Army dropped thousands of leaflets over Gaza City on Wednesday urging all residents tosee a heavy offensive that has rocked the main city of the besieged Palestinian territory.
• The United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees (UNRWA) is funded almost entirely by voluntary contributions from UN Member States. UNRWA also receives some funding from the Regular Budget of the United Nations, which is used mostly for international staffing costs.Hence statement 1 is correct  
• The Agency’s services encompass education, health care, relief and social services, camp infrastructure and improvement, microfinance and emergency assistance, including in times of armed conflict
• Following the 1948 War, UNRWA was established by United Nations General Assembly Resolution 302 (IV) of 8 December 1949 to carry out direct relief and works programmes for Palestine refugees. The Agency began operations on 1 May 1950.Hence statement 2 is correct  
• In the absence of a solution to the Palestine refugee problem, the General Assembly has repeatedly renewed UNRWA’s mandate, most recently extending it until 30 June 2026.

Source:

https://www.bbc.com/news/articles/cy08nl4plvzo

10. In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of

1. Digital security infrastructure
2. Food security infrastructure
3. Health care and education infrastructure
4. Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure

Answer: (a) Digital security infrastructure

Explanation:

• Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a technology for authenticating users and devices in the digital world. 
• Under this system, one or more trusted parties digitally sign documents certifying that a particular cryptographic key belongs to a particular user or device. The key can then be used as an identity for the user in digital networks. Hence, option (a) is correct.