1. One nation, one election 

Q. With reference to ‘One nation, one election’, Consider the following statements: 

  1. It is a simultaneous election to Lok Sabha, all state Legislative Assemblies, urban and rural local bodies.
  2. For simultaneous elections to the Lok Sabha and state Legislative Assemblies, amending the constitution requires ratification of half of the states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: 

In NEWS: The High-level Committee (HLC) on One Nation, One Election had  submitted its report to President Droupadi Murmu on March 14 morning.

About One nation, one election: 

  • Simultaneous elections, popularly referred to as “One Nation, One Election”, means holding elections to Lok Sabha, all state Legislative Assemblies, and urban and rural local bodies (municipalities and panchayats) at the same time. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Currently, all these elections are held independently of one another, following timelines dictated by the terms of every individual elected body.
  • According to the HLC report, the country now sees five to six elections in a year — if municipalities and panchayat elections are also included, the number of elections will increase manifold.

Reasons in favour: The government’s FAQs list the following reasons in favour of holding simultaneous elections:

  1. Frequent elections burden the government exchequer with additional expenditure. If the expenditure incurred by political parties is also added, these figures will be even higher.
  2. Asynchronous elections cause uncertainty and instability, thwarting supply chains, business investments and economic growth.
  3. Disruption of government machinery due to asynchronous elections causes hardship to citizens.
  4. Frequent use of government officials and security forces adversely affect discharge of their duties.
  5. Frequent imposition of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) causes policy paralysis and slows down the pace of the developmental programmes.
  6. Staggered elections induce ‘voters’ fatigue’ and present a significant challenge in ensuring their participation.

Recommendations – The committee has made the following recommendations:

(i) Amending the Constitution: The Constitution should be amended to enable simultaneous elections in two steps.

  • STEP 1: Simultaneous elections will be held to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies. For this, no ratification by the states will be required for the constitutional amendment. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
  • STEP 2: Elections to municipalities and the panchayats will be synchronised with elections to Lok Sabha and state Assemblies in such a way that local body elections are held within 100 days of the elections to Lok Sabha and state Assemblies. This will require ratification by not less than one-half of the states.

(ii) Single Electoral Role and Election ID: 

  • For the purpose of preparation of single electoral roll and electoral photo identity cards for use in elections to all the three tiers of government, the Constitution should be amended, so that the Election Commission of India can prepare a single electoral roll and election ID in consultation with the State Election Commissions. These amendments will require ratification by not less than one-half of the states.

(iii) In case of Hung house, etc.: 

  • In the event of a hung House, a no-confidence motion, or any such event, fresh elections should be held to constitute the new Lok Sabha or state Assembly for the unexpired term of the House.

(iv) Meeting logistics requirements: 

  • The committee has recommended that for meeting logistical requirements, the Election Commission of India will plan and estimate in advance, in consultation with the State Election Commissions, and take steps for the deployment of manpower, polling personnel, security forces, EVMs/VVPATs, etc., so that free and fair simultaneous elections are held in all the three tiers of the government.

Is this the first time that simultaneous elections are proposed to be held in India?

No. Following efforts made by the central government, state governments, and political parties along with the Election Commission of India, simultaneous elections were held in the seven states of Bihar, Bombay, Madras, Mysore, Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, and West Bengal in 1957.

PYQ REFERENCE:Q. Consider the following statements: (2020)According to the Constitution of India a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offense and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
Q2. Consider the following statements: (2017)The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 3 only
Answer: (d)

Source:  https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/specials/corporate-file/natural-diamonds-lose-their-sparkle-but-lab-grown-still-have-a-shine/article68637927.ece 

https://indianexpress.com/article/upsc-current-affairs/upsc-essentials/knowledge-nugget-one-nation-one-election-kovid-panel-upsc-polity-9570509/

2. AM, FM, and signal modulation 

Q. With reference to ‘Signal modulation’, consider the following statements:

  1. Signal modulation is the process of modifying a carrier wave to transmit data or information over distances.
  2. The Amplitude modulations are used for long-range communications, whereas the Frequency modulations are used for short-range communications.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2 

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Signal modulation simplifies the technologies required to transmit signals carrying information, like the news on TV or songs on the radio 

AM (Amplitude Modulation):

  • In Amplitude Modulation (AM), the amplitude (strength) of the carrier wave is varied in proportion to the message signal (such as sound). 
  • The frequency and phase of the carrier wave remain constant. 
  • AM is widely used in radio broadcasting, particularly for long-range communications, though it suffers from signal quality issues in comparison to FM.
  • Key feature: Varies the amplitude of the carrier wave.
  • Advantages: Simple to implement and can travel longer distances.
  • Disadvantages: Prone to noise and interference, leading to lower sound quality.

FM (Frequency Modulation):

  • In Frequency Modulation (FM), the frequency of the carrier wave is varied in accordance with the amplitude of the message signal, while the amplitude of the carrier remains constant. 
  • FM is used for high-fidelity broadcasting of music and speech, particularly for short-range communications like local radio stations. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Key feature: Varies the frequency of the carrier wave.
  • Advantages: Higher sound quality and less prone to interference than AM.
  • Disadvantages: Shorter range compared to AM.

Signal Modulation: 

  • Signal modulation is the process of modifying a carrier wave to transmit data or information over distances. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The carrier wave, typically a high-frequency wave, is combined with the original signal (the information), allowing it to be effectively transmitted and received. 
  • There are various types of modulation, with AM and FM being two common types.
  • Purpose: To allow data to be transmitted efficiently over long distances by modifying carrier waves.
PYQ REFERENCE:Q. With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements:1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks.3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-are-am-fm-and-signal-modulation-explained/article68641239.ece 

3. Long term capital gains (LTCG) tax

Q. Consider the following:

  1. Real estate
  2. Equity shares
  3. Bonds
  4. Mutual funds
  5. Gold

While calculating Long term capital gains (LTCG) tax, how many of the above are considered as capital assets?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(c) Only four

(d) All five

Answer: (d) All five

Explanation: 

In NEWS: The Finance Minister announced an increase in long term capital gains (LTCG) tax rate from 10% to 12.5%

About Long term capital gains (LTCG) tax:

  • Long-Term Capital Gains (LTCG) refer to the profits earned from the sale of capital assets that have been held for a certain period (usually over 12 months) before being sold. These gains are taxed at a specific rate known as the LTCG Tax.
  • Capital Assets include:
    • Real estate
    • Equity shares
    • Bonds
    • Mutual funds
    • Gold and other valuable assets. Hence all the statements are correct.
  • LTCG tax is a tool for increasing government revenue, especially from wealthy individuals who benefit from large capital gains.
  • LTCG tax reduces income inequality by ensuring those profiting from capital gains contribute a portion to the state.
  • Indexation and exemptions encourage the reinvestment of gains into the economy.

Holding Period

  • The holding period to classify gains as long-term varies by asset class:
  • Equity shares and equity-oriented mutual funds: 12 months.
  • Immovable property (real estate): 24 to 36 months.
  • Debt-oriented mutual funds, bonds, gold: 36 months.

Tax Rate

  • For listed equity shares and equity mutual funds:
  • LTCG exceeding ₹1 lakh in a financial year is taxed at 10% without indexation.
  • For other capital assets (real estate, debt mutual funds, etc.):
  • LTCG is taxed at 20% with indexation benefits.
  • Indexation: Adjusts the purchase price for inflation to reduce tax liability.

Applicability and Exemptions

  • LTCG Tax on Equity Investments:
  • Introduced in the Union Budget 2018. Before that, LTCG from the sale of equity shares and equity mutual funds was exempt if the Securities Transaction Tax (STT) was paid.
  • Threshold Exemption:
  • LTCG on equity shares and mutual funds is exempt up to ₹1 lakh in a financial year.
  • Exemptions for certain assets under Section 54 and Section 54F:
  • Gains from the sale of residential property can be exempted if reinvested in another residential property.
  • Gains from the sale of any long-term capital asset (except residential property) can be exempt under Section 54F, provided the proceeds are used to buy or construct a residential property.

Calculation of LTCG

Basic Formula:

  • LTCG = Sale Price of the Asset – (Indexed Purchase Price + Cost of Improvement + Expenses on Sale)

Indexed Purchase Price:

  • Adjusted for inflation using the Cost Inflation Index (CII). It reduces the taxable gain and, therefore, lowers the tax liability.

Recent Changes and Amendments

  • Budget 2018: – Reintroduced LTCG tax on equities and mutual funds (10%) with a threshold exemption of ₹1 lakh.
  • Budget 2023: – Reduced exemptions on certain categories of debt instruments and non-equity mutual funds. Tighter controls on LTCG tax exemptions for high-net-worth individuals.

Issues and Challenges

  • Impact on Investors:
    • Introduction of LTCG tax on equity reduces returns for retail investors.
    • Affects market sentiment, particularly in the short term.
  • Complexity in Calculation:
    • Calculation of LTCG, especially with indexation benefits, can be complex.
  • Debate on Fairness:
    • Critics argue that taxing long-term investments may discourage saving and long-term capital formation.
PYQ REFERENCE:Q. Consider the following:1. Demographic performance2. Forest and ecology3. Governance reforms4. Stable government5. Tax and fiscal effortsFor the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commissionused how many of the above as criteria other than population area andincome distance?(a) Only two(b) Only three(c) Only four(d) All five

Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/portfolio/personal-finance/navigating-the-new-taxation-scenario/article68645059.ece 

4. Lab – grown diamonds

Q. With reference to Lab – grown diamonds, consider the following statements:

  1. It has the same crystal structure (cubic), hardness, and sparkle as mined diamonds.
  2. It has less environmental cost.
  3. It is cheaper than natural diamonds.
  4. It can also be used in electronics, optics and cutting tools.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Natural diamonds lose their sparkle but lab-grown stones still have a shine 

Lab Grown Diamonds (LGDs):

  • Lab-grown diamonds (LGDs) are man-made diamonds created using advanced technological processes that replicate the conditions under which natural diamonds form in the Earth’s mantle.
  • LGDs are identical to natural diamonds in chemical composition, physical properties, and optical appearance. 
  • They have the same crystal structure (cubic), hardness, and sparkle as mined diamonds.
  • Two main methods are used to produce lab-grown diamonds are,
    • High Pressure High Temperature (HPHT):
    • Chemical Vapor Deposition (CVD)

Lab-Grown Diamonds vs Natural Diamonds: 

AspectLab-Grown Diamonds (LGDs)Natural Diamonds
OriginMan-made in laboratories using advanced technology.Formed naturally over billions of years in Earth’s mantle.
Production ProcessProduced through methods like High Pressure High Temperature (HPHT) or Chemical Vapour Deposition (CVD).Formed under high pressure and temperature in nature.
Chemical CompositionIdentical to natural diamonds: carbon atoms arranged in a cubic crystal structure.Pure carbon in cubic crystal structure.
Physical PropertiesSame as natural diamonds: Hardness of 10 on Mohs scale, excellent thermal conductivity, and identical optical properties.Same physical properties as lab-grown diamonds.
Cost20-40% cheaper than natural diamonds due to lower production costs and higher supply.More expensive due to rarity, mining costs, and supply chain complexities.
Environmental ImpactEco-friendly: Requires less energy and avoids land excavation, deforestation, and water pollution associated with mining.High environmental cost due to large-scale mining operations, habitat destruction, and carbon emissions.
Ethical ConcernsNo concerns of conflict diamonds (blood diamonds) as production is transparent and regulated.Risk of conflict diamonds entering the market, which can fund violence and human rights abuses.
Market PerceptionGrowing acceptance but still perceived by some as less prestigious than natural diamonds.Perceived as more prestigious and valuable due to their rarity and natural origin.
DurabilityEqually durable as natural diamonds, with the same hardness and resistance to scratching.Extremely durable, the hardest known natural material.
AvailabilityMore readily available due to controlled production.Limited availability due to the finite nature of natural diamond reserves.
CertificationCertified by gemological institutes like GIA, IGI, and others, with labelling as lab-grown.Certified by the same institutes but labelled as natural diamonds.
Color and ClarityCan be customized during production to achieve desired color and clarity.Natural diamonds vary in color and clarity depending on geological factors.
ApplicationsPrimarily in jewellery, but also used in industrial applications (electronics, optics, cutting tools).Widely used in jewellery, industrial tools, and other high-tech applications.
RarityNot rare, can be produced in large quantities based on demand.Considered rare, particularly high-quality diamonds.
PYQ REFERENCE:Q. When reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements:1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body.2. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of human body.3. They can be used in biochemical sensors.4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2, 3 and 4 only(c) 1, 3 and 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/specials/corporate-file/natural-diamonds-lose-their-sparkle-but-lab-grown-still-have-a-shine/article68637927.ece 

5. Jute production

Q. With reference to jute production in India, consider the following statements:

  1. It is known as golden fibre which is used in making gunny bags, mats, ropes, yarn and carpets.
  2. India’s Jute production accounts for about 70% of the world’s production.
  3. It is mainly concentrated in eastern India because of the rich alluvial soil of the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: 

In NEWS: ‘Floods may cut jute production by 20%’

  • The Board was preparing a draft for Jute Technology Mission 2.0 and conducted meetings with stakeholders. 
  • It was also supporting research projects to find more applications for jute. Lab testing was over for extracting ethanol from jute plants. 
  • It was estimated that one tonne of jute plant would give 495 litres of ethanol. There were plans to set up a pilot unit

Jute production in India:

  • India is the world’s largest producer of jute, accounting for about 70% of the world’s production, followed by Bangladesh and China. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • The major jute-growing states in India are West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, and Meghalaya. West Bengal alone produces over 60% of India’s total jute output.

Conditions Required for Cultivation:

  • Temperature: Between 25-35°C
  • Rainfall: Around 150-250 cm
  • Soil Type: Well drained alluvial soil.
  • It is mainly concentrated in eastern India because of the rich alluvial soil of the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • It is known as the golden fibre. It is used in making gunny bags, mats, ropes, yarn, carpets and other artefacts. Hence statement 1 is correct.
PYQ REFERENCE:Q. With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following statements:1. Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi crops.2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production.3. In the last three decades, while the production of kharif pulses has increased the production of rabi pulses has decreased.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 2 only(d) 1, 2 and 3

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/jute-production-to-be-20-lower-this-year-on-floods/article68638295.ece 

6. Helium 

Q. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:Helium is used to pressurise fuel tanks, ensuring fuel flow to the rocket’s engines. 

Statement-II: The boiling point of helium is high and it is highly reactive to substances.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

Explanation: 

In NEWS: 

Two NASA astronauts aboard Boeing’s Starliner will stay on the International Space Station for months because of a faulty propulsion system whose problems included helium leaks.

Back on Earth, SpaceX’s Polaris Dawn mission, which finally launched on Tuesday, was delayed because of helium issues on ground equipment.

Past missions that have been affected by pesky helium leaks include ISRO’s Chandrayaan 2 and ESA’s Ariane 5.

Why do spacecraft and rockets use helium?

  • Helium is inert — it does not react with other substances or combust — and its atomic number is 2, making it the second lightest element after hydrogen.
  • Rockets need to achieve specific speeds and altitude to reach and maintain orbit. A heavier rocket requires more energy, not only increasing fuel consumption but also needing more powerful engines, which are more expensive to develop, test, and maintain.
  • Helium has a very low boiling point (– 268.9 degree Celsius), allowing it to remain a gas even in super-cold environments, an important feature because many rocket fuels are stored in that temperature range. Hence statement 2 is correct.

How is helium used in spacecraft?

  • Helium is used to pressurise fuel tanks, ensuring fuel flows to the rocket’s engines without interruption; and for cooling systems. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • As fuel and oxidiser are burned in the rocket’s engines, helium fills the resulting empty space in the tanks, maintaining the overall pressure inside.
  • Because it is non-reactive, it can safely mingle with the tanks’ residual contents.
  • Helium’s small atomic size and low molecular weight mean its atoms can escape through small gaps or seals in storage tanks and fuel systems.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/unpacking-kejriwal-bail-order-9566578/ 

7. The Great Stupa of Sanchi

Q. With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements: 

1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.

2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics.

3. The stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation: 

In NEWS: The story of the Great Stupa of Sanchi from Ashokan times to now 

Background: 

External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar on Wednesday stopped by the replica of the East Gate of Sanchi’s Great Stupa standing in front of Humboldt Forum museum in Berlin.

The ornate red sandstone gateway, which was unveiled in December 2022, is a 1:1 reproduction of the original structure standing at almost 10 metres high and 6 metres wide, and weighing roughly 150 tonnes.

The Great Stupa of Sanchi: 

  • A stupa is a Buddhist commemorative monument usually containing sacred relics of the Buddha or other venerable saints. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • The archetypal stupa is a hemispherical structure, whose origins can be traced to pre-Buddhist burial mounds found in India.  Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The Great Stupa of Sanchi exemplifies this form. Commissioned in the third century BCE by Emperor Ashoka, it is the largest and oldest structure in a complex of Buddhist monuments comprising numerous other stupas, temples, and monasteries. 
  • The most recent construction in Sanchi can be dated to as late as the twelfth century CE.
  • Sanchi is unique not only in its having the most perfect and well-preserved stupas but also in its offering a wide and educative field for the study of the genesis, efflorescence and decay of Buddhist art and architecture in India.
  • The Great Stupa is one of the oldest standing stone structures in India, believed to have been built over the Buddha’s relics. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Its construction was overseen by Ashoka’s wife Devi, who hailed from the nearby trading town of Vidisha. 
  • The development of the Sanchi complex was supported by patronage from Vidisha’s mercantile community.

Gateways of the Great Stupa:

  • While the original stupa itself is a rather plain hemispherical structure crowned by a chhatra (parasol), what makes it instantly recognisable are the ornamental gateways or toranas that stand in front of it.
  • The four toranas, oriented to the four cardinal directions, were constructed in the first century BCE, likely within a few decades of each other during the reign of the Satavahana dynasty.
  • These gateways are made of two square pillars which support a superstructure comprising three curved architraves (or beams) with spirally-rolled ends. 
  • The pillars and the architraves are adorned with beautiful bas relief and sculptures depicting scenes from the Buddha’s life, stories from the Jataka Tales, and other Buddhist iconography.
  • The art impresses greatly by its rhythm, symmetry, decorative beauty and perfect handling of the floral and plant motifs… They even admitted flagrantly amorous scenes on their sacred monuments, which do not fit in with Buddha’s teachings.
PYQ REFERENCE:Q. With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2023)1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics.3. The stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.How many of the statements given above are correct?(a) Only one(b) Only two(c) All three(d) None

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/from-ashokan-times-to-now-sanchi-to-europe-story-of-the-great-stupa-9564786/ 

8. The Munshi-Ayyangar formula and Hindi Diwas

Q. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: 10th January is declared as the World Hindi Day.

Statement II: It was in 1949 that Hindi was spoken in the United Nations General Assembly for the first time on the same day.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

Explanation: 

In NEWS: 

Munshi-Ayyangar formula and Hindi Diwas:

  1. The Constituent Assembly chose Hindi as the official language of the country after extensive discussions over three days. 

(Note: Hindi was chosen not as the national language.)

  1. The Munshi-Ayyangar formula was adopted as a compromise solution. It was named after Drafting Committee members K M Munshi and N Gopalaswamy Ayyangar.
  1. As part of the Munshi-Ayyangar formula, Article 343 of the Constitution as adopted in 1950 said:
  1. “The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script.”
  2. “The form of numerals to be used for the official purposes of the Union shall be the international form of Indian numerals.”
  3. “…for a period of fifteen years from the commencement of this Constitution, the English language shall continue to be used for all the official purposes of the Union for which it was being used immediately before such commencement.”
  1. The 2011 linguistic census accounts for 121 mother tongues, including 22 languages listed in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution. Hindi is the most widely spoken, with 52.8 crore individuals, or 43.6% of the population, declaring it as their mother tongue. The next highest is Bengali, mother tongue for 9.7 crores (8%) — less than one-fifth of Hindi’s count.
  2. In terms of the number of people who know Hindi, the count crosses more than half the country. Nearly 13.9 crore (over 11%) reported Hindi as their second language, which makes it either the mother tongue or second language for nearly 55% of the population.

World Hindi Day or Vishwa Hindi Diwas:

  • World Hindi Day or Vishwa Hindi Diwas, is celebrated on January 10 every year to mark the importance and celebrate Hindi as a language. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Vishwa Hindi Diwas was started to mark the anniversary of the first time Hindi was spoken in the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) in 1949. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • In the year 1975, the then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi inaugurated the first World Hindi Conference. 
  • Since then, conferences have been organised in different parts of the world.
  • However, it was on January 10, 2006 when the World Hindi Day was celebrated for the first time. This decision was announced by the then Prime Minister of India, Manmohan Singh
PYQ REFERENCE:Q. Consider the following statements:Statement I: 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day.Statement II: It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/upsc-current-affairs/upsc-essentials/a-brief-history-of-the-israel-palestine-conflict-upsc-9566031/ 

9. Jynneos

Q. ‘Jynneos’ recently seen in news is approved as a vaccine for 

  1. Nipah virus
  2. Monkeypox
  3. Cervical cancer
  4. Tuberculosis 

Answer: (b) Monkeypox

Explanation: 

In NEWS: WHO clears Bavarian Nordic’s shot for Mpox

  • WHO approves Bavarian Nordic’s mpox vaccine Jynneos, enabling UN agencies to purchase and distribute it.
  • It is also reviewing another vaccine, LC16, made by Japan’s KM Biologics.
  • This approval, called prequalification, allows United Nation agencies to purchase the vaccine and coordinate donations.
  • The WHO’s pre-qualification means that a medicine is of good quality and is safe and effective. U.N. agencies also rely on the process before buying medical products.
  • According to recommendations from the WHO, the vaccine can also be used “off-label” in infants, children and adolescents, as well as in pregnant and immuno-compromised people in outbreak settings where the benefits of vaccination outweigh the potential risks.

What is mpox? What are its symptoms?

  • Mpox is from the same virus family as smallpox but causes milder symptoms such as fever, chills, and body aches. In more severe cases, people can develop lesions on the face, hands, chest, and genitals.

Source: The Hindu

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/international/world-news/who-clears-bavarian-nordics-vaccine-as-first-shot-against-mpox/articleshow/113323359.cms

https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/who-approves-first-mpox-vaccine-to-boost-disease-control-in-africa-101726238987491.html

10. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India? (UPSC PYQ 2024)

(a) The Regulating Act

(b) The Pitt’s India Act

(c) The Charter Act of 1793

(d) The Charter Act of 1833

Answer: (d)

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