1. Which of the following are the significance of cryopreservation of corals?
I. Protecting endangered coral species and maintaining genetic diversity
II. Producing coral larvae to restore degraded reefs
III. Preserving coral species threatened by climate change
Select the correct answer using the code below
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
Explanation:
In NEWS: Battle for reefs – Scientists are helping corals fight back against warming seas
Cryobanks for corals:
- Cryobanks for corals are specialized facilities that store coral genetic material (sperm, eggs, embryos, or larvae) at very low temperatures to preserve it for long-term conservation.
- This is done using cryopreservation techniques, which keep the cells viable for decades.
How it Works:
- Coral sperm or eggs are collected during spawning events, which often occur at night once a year.
- The material is frozen at ultra-low temperatures using liquid nitrogen.
- Stored samples can later be thawed and used for fertilization, larval culture, or research.
Significance:
- Biodiversity Conservation: Protects endangered coral species and maintains genetic diversity essential for resilience.
- Restoration Support: Enables scientists to produce coral larvae for repopulating degraded reefs.
- Climate Change Mitigation: Preserves coral species that might not survive in warming oceans.
- Scientific Research: Supports studies in coral genetics, adaptation, and resilience.
- Global Collaboration: Genetic material can be shared across countries for coordinated conservation efforts. Hence option (d) is correct.
Example:Taronga CryoDiversity Bank in Australia stores coral sperm and larvae from the Great Barrier Reef.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2018) Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters. 2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines. 3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/battle-for-reefs
2. Consider the following pairs:
| S.no | Zone | Breadth from Baseline | Sovereign Rights / Jurisdiction |
| 1 | Territorial Sea | Up to 12 nautical miles (nm) | Full sovereignty of the coastal state; foreign ships enjoy innocent passage. |
| 2 | Contiguous Zone | 12–24 nm | State can enforce laws on customs, taxation, immigration, and pollution. |
| 3 | Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) | Up to 200 nm | Sovereign rights for exploring and exploiting natural resources in water, seabed, and subsoil. |
| 4 | High Seas | Beyond EEZ | Open to all states; governed by international law. |
How many of the Pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (d) All four
Explanation:
In NEWS: What are the challenges with the High Seas Treaty?
United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
- The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) is often called the “Constitution of the Oceans.”
- It establishes the legal framework for all activities in oceans and seas, balancing freedom of navigation, sovereign rights, and environmental protection.
- Adopted: 1982 (Montego Bay, Jamaica)
- Came into force: 1994
- India ratified: 1995
Objectives
- To define maritime zones and jurisdictional rights of coastal states.
- To regulate navigation, resource exploitation, marine environment protection, and dispute resolution.
- To promote the peaceful use of oceans, equitable utilization of marine resources, and scientific research.
Major Maritime Zones under UNCLOS
| Zone | Breadth from Baseline | Sovereign Rights / Jurisdiction |
| Territorial Sea | Up to 12 nautical miles (nm) | Full sovereignty of the coastal state; foreign ships enjoy innocent passage. |
| Contiguous Zone | 12–24 nm | State can enforce laws on customs, taxation, immigration, and pollution. |
| Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) | Up to 200 nm | Sovereign rights for exploring and exploiting natural resources (living and non-living) in water, seabed, and subsoil. |
| Continental Shelf | Up to 200 nm (can extend up to 350 nm if proven) | Rights to exploit seabed and subsoil resources. |
| High Seas | Beyond EEZ | Open to all states; governed by international law. |
Hence all pairs are correct.
Institutional Mechanisms under UNCLOS
- International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS) – settles disputes (based in Hamburg, Germany).
- International Seabed Authority (ISA) – regulates deep seabed mining beyond national jurisdiction.
- Commission on the Limits of the Continental Shelf (CLCS) – examines claims for extending continental shelves.
Importance for India
- Defines India’s maritime rights over its Exclusive Economic Zone (~2.02 million sq km).
- Guides India’s Blue Economy, deep-sea mining (Polymetallic nodules in the Central Indian Ocean), and fisheries.
- Basis for maritime boundary agreements with neighboring countries.
- Provides a legal framework for freedom of navigation in the Indo-Pacific, crucial for India’s trade and naval strategy.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: 1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention. 2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. 3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
3. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change adopted under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
Statement II: It aims to limit global average temperature rise to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels and to pursue efforts to limit it to 1.5°C.
Statement III: Under the Paris Agreement, all countries have common emission reduction targets which are legally enforceable through international sanctions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
Explanation:
In NEWS: 10 years of Paris Agreement
Paris Agreement (2015):
- The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change adopted under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Hence, Statement I is correct
- Adopted: December 12, 2015 (COP 21, Paris)
- Entered into force: November 4, 2016
- India ratified: October 2, 2016 (Gandhi Jayanti).
- It replaced the Kyoto Protocol (1997) as the main global climate framework.
Objective
To limit global warming to:
- Well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels, and
- Pursue efforts to limit it to 1.5°C. Hence, Statement II is correct and explains Statement I.
It aims to enhance the global response to climate change by promoting climate resilience, adaptation, and low greenhouse gas emissions development.
Key Provisions
| Area | Provision / Mechanism |
| Global Temperature Goal | Limit warming to <2°C, preferably 1.5°C. |
| Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) | Each country sets its own emission reduction targets; no binding targets from the UN. Hence, Statement III is incorrect |
| Progressive Ambition | NDCs to be updated every 5 years, reflecting the highest possible ambition. |
| Transparency Framework | Countries must report regularly on emissions and progress. |
| Global Stocktake | Conducted every 5 years (starting 2023) to assess collective progress. |
| Climate Finance | Developed countries to provide $100 billion annually to developing nations for mitigation and adaptation. |
| Adaptation | Equal emphasis on adaptation and mitigation measures. |
| Loss and Damage | Recognizes the need to address loss and damage from climate impacts, though not a liability mechanism. |
Differentiated Responsibilities
- Based on the principle of Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities (CBDR-RC).
- Developed nations must take the lead in reducing emissions and financing developing countries.
India’s Commitments (NDCs under Paris Agreement)
| Goal | Target by 2030 |
| Emission Intensity | Reduce GDP emission intensity by 45% from 2005 levels. |
| Non-fossil Energy Capacity | Achieve 50% installed capacity from non-fossil fuel sources. |
| Carbon Sink | Create additional 2.5 – 3 billion tonnes of CO₂ equivalent sink through forests. |
| Renewable Energy | 500 GW non-fossil energy capacity. |
| Net Zero | Achieve Net Zero by 2070 (announced at COP26, Glasgow). |
Mechanisms under Paris Agreement
- Article 6 Mechanism: Market and non-market approaches to support emission reductions.
- 6.2: Bilateral carbon trading.
- 6.4: Successor to Kyoto’s Clean Development Mechanism (CDM).
- 6.8: Non-market approaches (e.g., technology transfer, capacity building).
- Global Stocktake (2023): First assessment held at COP28 (Dubai).
- Transparency Framework: Common rules for all nations to report GHG emissions.
Institutions & Finance
- Green Climate Fund (GCF): Mobilizes climate finance.
- Adaptation Fund & Technology Mechanism: Support developing countries.
- Developed nations committed to mobilize $100 billion annually by 2020, extended through 2025.
Difference between Kyoto Protocol & Paris Agreement
| Aspect | Kyoto Protocol (1997) | Paris Agreement (2015) |
| Binding nature | Legally binding emission targets for developed countries only | Voluntary, self-determined targets (NDCs) for all countries |
| Approach | “Top-down” | “Bottom-up” |
| Coverage | Only Annex I (developed) | All UNFCCC parties |
Recent Developments
- COP26 (Glasgow, 2021):
- Global Net Zero commitments by mid-century.
- Glasgow Climate Pact: Phase down of unabated coal power and end of inefficient fossil fuel subsidies.
- COP27 (Egypt, 2022):
- Established a Loss and Damage Fund for vulnerable countries.
- COP28 (UAE, 2023):
- First Global Stocktake held under the Paris Agreement; emphasized energy transition and tripling renewables by 2030.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2016) Q. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017. 2. The Agreement aims to limit the greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2°C or even 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels. 3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Source: https://www.c2es.org/document/10-years-of-the-paris-agreement-progress-toward-achieving-key-goals/
4. Consider the following statements:
1. Digital arrest is a type of cybercrime where fraudsters, posing as law enforcement officials, intimidate and extort money from victims.
2. In India, there is no system like digital arrest under law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: ‘Digital arrests’ are a very big challenge; victims, mostly elderly, lost ₹3,000 crore in India alone, says Supreme Court
Digital Arrest:
- A ‘digital arrest’ involves cybercriminals using deception and fear to control a victim’s digital communication and movement to extract money or information. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- There is no system like digital arrest under law. Hence statement 2 is correct.
How it works:
- Intimidation: The fraudsters call the victim and introduce themselves as officers from a government agency like the CBI, NCB, or Income Tax Department. They may use spoofed numbers or fake IDs to appear legitimate.
- False Accusations: The victim is falsely accused of involvement in serious crimes such as money laundering, drug trafficking, or tax evasion.
- Fear Tactics: The fraudsters create a sense of urgency and fear by threatening the victim with arrest, imprisonment, or other legal consequences.
- Extortion: The victim is demanded to pay a certain amount of money to avoid arrest or legal action. The payment is often made through online transactions or cryptocurrency.
- Constant Surveillance: In some cases, the victim is forced to remain under constant video surveillance through platforms like Skype or Zoom until the demands are met.
| PYQ REFERENCE: Q. Consider the following statements: A digital signature is 1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it 2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or serve on Internet 3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
5. Consider the following statements:
1. All Indian vulture species are listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, providing the highest protection.
2. The National Action Plan for Vulture Conservation mandates the establishment of at least one vulture-safe zone (VSZ) in each state.
3. India has the highest vulture diversity in the world after Africa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: Vultures disappear from 72% of historical nesting sites, WII assessment reveals
Vultures in India
- Vultures are scavenging raptors crucial for maintaining ecosystem health by feeding on animal carcasses, thus preventing disease spread.
- India was once home to ~4 crore vultures (1980s), but their populations crashed by over 95% in the 1990s–2000s due to toxic veterinary drugs.
- India has the highest vulture diversity in the world after Africa. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Vulture Species in India
There are 9 species of vultures recorded in India:
Resident Species (6)
1. Oriental White-backed Vulture (Gyps bengalensis)
2. Long-billed Vulture (Gyps indicus)
3. Slender-billed Vulture (Gyps tenuirostris)
4. Red-headed (King) Vulture (Sarcogyps calvus)
5. Egyptian Vulture (Neophron percnopterus)
6. Indian Griffon (Gyps fulvus)
Migratory Species (3)
7. Eurasian Griffon (Gyps fulvus)
8. Himalayan Griffon (Gyps himalayensis)
9. Cinereous Vulture (Aegypius monachus)
Conservation Status (IUCN Red List)
| Species | IUCN Status |
| Oriental White-backed Vulture | Critically Endangered |
| Slender-billed Vulture | Critically Endangered |
| Long-billed Vulture | Critically Endangered |
| Red-headed Vulture | Critically Endangered |
| Egyptian Vulture | Endangered |
| Himalayan Griffon | Near Threatened |
Causes of Decline
- Diclofenac poisoning:
- Veterinary drug used to treat livestock.
- Vultures feeding on carcasses of treated animals suffer kidney failure.
- Caused >95% population crash in Gyps species.
- Habitat loss and food scarcity (due to improved carcass disposal).
- Electrocution and collision with power lines and wind turbines.
- Poisoned bait used by poachers.
- Inbreeding and low breeding rate in small populations.
Conservation Efforts
(a) Legal Protection
- All Indian vulture species are listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, providing the highest protection. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Diclofenac use was banned for veterinary purposes in 2006; alternatives like meloxicam are promoted.
(b) National Policies
- National Action Plan for Vulture Conservation (2020–2025):
- Establish at least one vulture-safe zone (VSZ) in each state. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Regulate veterinary drugs toxic to vultures (e.g., ketoprofen, aceclofenac).
- Expand vulture breeding centres to 8–10 across India.
- Conduct periodic surveys and tagging.
- Vulture Safe Zones (VSZs): Established around breeding sites (e.g., Pinjore, Rajabhatkhawa, Rani).
(c) Captive Breeding Centres
- First established in Pinjore, Haryana (BNHS & Forest Dept.)
- Other centres: Rajabhatkhawa (WB), Rani (Assam), Bhopal (MP).
- Aim to breed and reintroduce vultures into safe wild habitats.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2012) Q. Vultures which used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to (a) the destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species (b) a drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle (c) scarcity of food available to them (d) a widespread, persistent and fatal disease among them |
6. The Pambadum Shola National Park consisting of evergreen montane forests interspersed with grasslands is located in which among the following states?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka
(d) Goa
Answer: (b) Kerala
Explanation:
In NEWS: How Pampadum Shola’s fight against wattle invasion is reshaping India’s restoration story
Pambadum Shola National Park:
- Pambadum Shola National Park is the smallest national park in Kerala, covering an area of about 1.32 square kilometers. Hence option (b) is correct.
- It is located in the Idukki district, near Marayoor and Kanthalloor, close to the hill station of Munnar.
- The park was established in 2003 to protect the unique shola forest ecosystem of the Western Ghats.
- The name “Pambadum Shola” means “the forest where snakes dance” in Malayalam.
- It forms part of the Anamalai sub-cluster of the Western Ghats, recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
- The park’s terrain consists of evergreen montane forests (sholas) interspersed with grasslands.
- Rare and endemic species like the Nilgiri marten, Indian leopard, gaur, sambar deer, and Nilgiri wood pigeon are found here.
- The park is part of Kerala’s protected area network, along with Eravikulam, Anamudi Shola, and Mathikettan Shola National Parks.
Australian Wattle:
- While wattles are native to Australia, several species have been introduced to other countries (especially in Africa, Asia, and the Mediterranean) for timber, fuelwood, or land stabilization.
- In many of these regions, certain wattles have become highly invasive, spreading rapidly and outcompeting native plants.
- These species produce large numbers of long-lived seeds and can resprout after fire, giving them a competitive advantage.
- Invasive wattles form dense thickets that:
- Reduce biodiversity by crowding out native species
- Alter soil chemistry (due to nitrogen fixation)
- Change fire regimes and water availability
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2019) Q. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone? (a) Manas National Park (b) Namdapha National Park (c) Neora Valley National Park (d) Valley of Flowers National Park |
7. Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘Nipah virus infection’.
1. It is a type of RNA virus in the genus Henipavirus, which normally circulates among fruit bats of the genus Pteropus.
2. It can be spread from animals to people and there is no human to human transmission.
3. There is neither vaccine nor specific treatment .
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: ICMR invites EoI to develop monoclonal antibodies against Nipah virus in India
Nipah virus:
- Nipah virus infection is an infection caused by the Nipah virus. The Nipah virus (NiV) is a type of RNA virus in the genus Henipavirus, which normally circulates among fruit bats of the genus Pteropus. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Symptoms: None, fever, cough, headache, diarrhea, confusion
- Complications: Inflammation of the brain, seizures
- Diagnostic method: Based on symptoms, confirmed by laboratory testing
- Prevention: Avoiding exposure to bats and to sick pigs and people and not drinking raw date palm sap.
- Deaths: ~50 to 75% risk of death
- Transmission: Spread typically requires direct contact with an infected source; it can both spread between people and from other animals to people. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- Vaccine: Management is restricted to supportive care; as of 2021 there is neither vaccine nor specific treatment. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2017) Q. Consider the following statements: 1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue. 2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
8. The Rowmari–Donduwa Wetland Complex, recently in news, is significant because:
(a) It meets Ramsar criteria by hosting more than 20,000 waterbirds and several threatened species.
(b) It is India’s first wetland to be designated under Ramsar in Assam.
(c) It is a high-altitude wetland in the Eastern Himalayas.
(d) It is a coastal lagoon in the Sundarbans delta.
Answer: (a) It meets Ramsar criteria by hosting more than 20,000 waterbirds and several threatened species.
Explanation:
In NEWS: Push for Ramsar site tag for wetlands in Assam wildlife sanctuary
Ramsar Convention on Wetlands (Ramsar) site tag for wetlands in Assam:
- The Ramsar Convention is an international treaty (1971) for the conservation and “wise use” of wetlands of international importance.
- In India, the first wetland to be designated under Ramsar in Assam is Deepor Beel (near Guwahati), which was declared in 2002.
- Despite Assam having thousands of wetlands (estimates over 3,000) owing to its floodplain, braided rivers and marshy systems, only one site in the state so far has Ramsar status.
The Current Proposal: Rowmari–Donduwa Wetland Complex
- Conservationists, scientists and local stakeholders in Assam are actively pushing for this wetland complex to be designated as a Ramsar site.
- Location & Nature: The complex comprises marshes, seasonally-flooded grasslands, riverine channels in central Assam (in the Nagaon area) that function as a habitat for migratory inland water-birds, resident birds, fish nursery grounds, and as a hydrological buffer.
Why it qualifies:
- Over 47,000 water-birds counted from 75-107 species in recent surveys ⇒ meets one of Ramsar’s threshold criteria (20,000 water-birds) for designation.
- Presence of threatened bird species (e.g., Lesser Adjutant, Black-necked Stork, Ferruginous Pochard, Knob-billed Duck).
- Supports at least 48 fish species and local livelihoods via fisheries and seasonal agriculture.
- Provides flood attenuation, groundwater recharge — critical for Assam’s flood-prone Brahmaputra valley.
Hence option (a) is correct.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2014) Q. With reference to a conservation organization called ‘Wetlands International’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention. 2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
9. The term ‘Enshittification’, recently seen in the news refers to
(a) The gradual improvement of a product or service over time due to technological innovation.
(b) The systematic decline in quality of a product or digital platform as it prioritizes profit over user experience.
(c) A government policy to regulate digital platforms for better consumer protection.
(d) A software engineering process that automatically updates legacy code for efficiency.
Answer: (b) The systematic decline in quality of a product or digital platform as it prioritizes profit over user experience.
Explanation:
In NEWS: Are your favourite social platforms being degraded?
- ‘Enshittification’ is a term increasingly being used to describe how your digital experiences, services, and transactions have become worse over time. However, the word’s creator says this is a deliberate process, and that pushing back is possible
Enshittification:
Enshittification refers to the gradual degradation of a digital platform or service over time, often as it shifts focus from serving users to maximizing profits. Hence option (b) is correct.
Stages of Enshittification:
- Bait: The platform initially prioritizes users, offering a high-quality experience to attract a large audience.
- Switch: Once the user base is established, the platform starts favoring business customers (advertisers, content creators) over regular users.
- Extraction: The platform maximizes profit from both users and business customers, often by increasing ads, fees, or reducing user-friendly features.
Effects on Users:
- More intrusive advertisements.
- Reduced quality of service and user experience.
- Features designed to increase monetization rather than usability.
Effects on Business Customers:
- Diminishing returns unless they pay more or adapt to new monetization strategies.
- Favoritism towards paid promotions or premium users.
Significance:
- Highlights the tension between user interests and profit motives on digital platforms.
- Shows the importance of competition, regulation, and alternatives to prevent quality decline.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2016) Q. In the context of the developments in Bioinformatics, the term ‘transcriptome’, sometimes seen in the news, refers to (a) a range of enzymes used in genome editing (b) the full range of mRNA molecules expressed by an organism (c) the description of the mechanism of gene expression (d) a mechanism of genetic mutation taking place in cells |
10. In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat?
(a) Sand deserts of northwest India
(b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat
(d) Western Ghats
Answer: (d) Western Ghats
Explanation:
- The Great Indian Hornbill (Buceros bicornis), also known as the Great Pied Hornbill, is a large forest bird found mainly in:
- The Western Ghats of India, and
- The foothills of the Himalayas (from Uttarakhand and Nepal eastward to northeastern states like Arunachal Pradesh and Assam).
- It inhabits evergreen and moist deciduous forests, not deserts, salt marshes, or alpine zones.
- It is the state bird of Kerala and Arunachal Pradesh.
- IUCN Status: Vulnerable — mainly due to habitat loss and hunting for its casque and feathers.
(a) & (c):- Deserts and salt marshes — unsuitable for forest-dwelling hornbills.
(b):- Higher Himalayas — too cold and treeless.
