CURRENT AFFAIRS – 17/09/24

1. Neelakurinji

Q. With reference to Neelakurinji Flower, consider the following statements;

1. It blooms only once in every 12 years.
2. It is a shrub that belongs to the Acanthaceae family and the Strobilanthes genus.
3. It is extensively used for its medicinal values to cure Arthritis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Neelakurinji, the flowers that give the Nilgiris its name, in full bloom after 12 years on the slopes of the mountain region in Udhagamandalam in Tamil Nadu on Monday.

• Neelakurinji is a shrub that belongs to the Acanthaceae family and the Strobilanthes genus. There are about 250 species of Strobilanthes in the world, of which 46 are found in India. Most of these species have unusual flowering cycles, ranging from annual to 16-year intervals. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• Neelakurinji is one of the most well-known species, as it has a 12-year cycle and a mass flowering phenomenon. The flower has a cultural and ecological significance, as it is used by the local tribes to calculate their age and by the bees to produce a special honey. Hence statement 1 is correct. 

Distribution: 

• Neelakurunji grows in the shola forests of the Western Ghats, a biodiversity hotspot that spans across the states of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat. The flower is mostly seen in the Nilgiri Hills, which derive their name from the blue hue of the flower. The flower also grows in the Anamalai Hills, Palani Hills, Bababudangiri, Kudremukh and Biligiri Ranganathaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve. The flower can be found at an altitude of 1300 to 2400 metres, and usually grows to a height of 30 to 60 cm

Flowering season: 

• Neelakurinji blooms between mid-July and October, once every 12 years. The last time the flower bloomed was in 2018, and the next time will be in 2030. Unusually however, The flower is blooming in Munnar this year in summer despite this cycle. The flower has a long dormancy period, during which it stores energy and nutrients in its underground stems. When the environmental conditions are favourable, the flower synchronizes its flowering with other plants of the same species, creating a spectacular display of colour and fragrance. The flower then produces seeds that germinate and continue the cycle of life and death

Cultural and economic significance: 

• Neelakurinji is important for both cultural and ecological reasons. The flower is considered sacred by the local tribes, who use it to mark their age and celebrate their festivals. The flower is also a source of nectar for the honeybees, who produce a rare and medicinal honey from it. The flower also indicates the health of the ecosystem, as it is sensitive to changes in climate and habitat. The flower is a part of the rich biodiversity of the Western Ghats, which is home to many endemic and endangered species of flora and fauna.
• It has many medicinal properties:
  • Anti-inflammatory: Neelakurinji has anti-inflammatory properties.
  • Anti-arthritic: Neelakurinji has anti-arthritic properties.
  • Antioxidant: Neelakurinji has antioxidant activity.
  • Anti-cancer: Neelakurinji has anti-cancer properties.
  • Anti-diabetic: Neelakurinji has anti-diabetic properties.
  • Laxative: Neelakurinji has laxative properties.
  • Diuretic: Neelakurinji has diuretic properties. 

Hence statement 3 is correct. 

Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/the-season-of-neelakarunji-flowers-that-bloom-once-in-12-years-is-back/photostory/106808933.cms?picid=106808936 

2. Samagra Shiksha funds

Q. With reference to ‘Samagra Shiksha funds’, which of the statements given below is/are correct? 

1. It is an integrated Centrally-sponsored scheme for school education from nursery till Class 12.
2. It aims to ensure equitable access to quality education for all children, focusing on inclusive education and improving learning outcomes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Tamil Nadu hasn’t received its Samagra Shiksha funds for the current year.

Tamil Nadu rejects the NEP’s requirement for teaching three languages, preferring its own two-language formula.

The disagreement over NEP compliance has led to heightened tensions and a public exchange between Tamil Nadu and the Centre.

Samagra Shiksha:

• Samagra Shiksha is an integrated Centrally-sponsored scheme for school education from nursery till Class 12, with components for teacher training and salaries, special education, digital education, school infrastructure, administrative reform, vocational and sports education, with grants for textbooks, uniforms, and libraries, among others. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It subsumes three previous schemes:
  • Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), 
  • Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA), and 
  • Teacher Education (TE). 
• The main objective of Samagra Shiksha is to ensure equitable access to quality education for all children, focusing on inclusive education and improving learning outcomes. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The scheme’s estimated outlay between 2021 and 2026 is ₹2.94 lakh crore, with the Centre and States contributing funds in a 60:40 ratio. 
• For 2024-25, Tamil Nadu’s allocation under the scheme amounts to ₹3,586 crore of which the Central share is ₹2,152 crore, with a first quarterly instalment of ₹573 crore, which has not yet arrived halfway through the financial year.

Funding Mechanism:

• The funding for Samagra Shiksha is shared between the Central Government and State Governments based on a specific ratio:
• For general states: 60% is provided by the Central Government, and 40% by the State Government.
• For northeastern and Himalayan states: The Centre contributes 90%, and the states contribute 10%.
• For Union Territories without legislatures: The funding is fully provided by the Central Government.

Need for the Samagra Shiksha fund:

• These funds are used for various activities, including:
• Infrastructure development (construction of schools, additional classrooms, and toilets).
• Procurement of learning materials and textbooks.
• Setting up ICT (Information and Communication Technology) facilities in schools.
• Teacher training programs.
• Interventions for improving enrollment and retention of girls, students from disadvantaged communities, and children with disabilities.
• Samagra Shiksha is an important tool for achieving the goals of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which emphasizes quality and universal access to education for all.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/education/why-is-tamil-nadus-education-funding-on-hold-explained/article68648084.ece 

3. Centre-State relations and the use of emergency provisions by the Centre

Q. Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?

1. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
2. Article 355 imposes a duty on the Centre to protect every State from external aggression and internal disturbance.
3. The constitution mandates that President’s Rule should only be imposed in the event of a complete breakdown of constitutional machinery, not just law and order.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: 

In NEWS: The recent spate of renewed violence in Manipur has once again triggered the discussion around Centre-State relations and the use of emergency provisions by the Centre.

India’s federal set-up: 

• India is a federation with governments at the Centre and the States. 
• The Seventh Schedule to the Indian Constitution distributes the power between the Union and States. 
• Under this scheme, it is the domain of the State governments to maintain law and order in their respective States.

The emergency provisions: 

• The emergency provisions are provided in Part XVIII of the Constitution. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Articles 355 and 356 deal primarily with the affairs of government in a State under this part.
  • Article 355 imposes a duty on the Centre to protect every State from external aggression and internal disturbance. It also specifies that the Centre should ensure that every State government operates according to the Constitution. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Article 356 allows for the imposition of the President’s rule if a State’s government cannot function in accordance with constitutional provisions. 
• While these articles empower the Centre to act in times of crisis, their misuse has been a concern, as they were used in the past to remove elected state governments.
• However, after the landmark S.R. Bommai case (1994), the misuse of Article 356 was curtailed. The Supreme Court ruled that President’s Rule should only be imposed in the event of a complete breakdown of constitutional machinery, not just law and order. It is given in the judgement and not the constitution. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Recent Developments: 

• Commissions such as the Sarkaria and Punchhi Commissions have recommended using Article 356 only as a last resort. However, in situations of extreme internal unrest (like in Manipur), the Centre has been advised to act under Article 355 to maintain order while considering constitutional and political factors.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/how-do-emergency-provisions-impact-centre-state-relations/article68648093.ece#:~:text=The%20scope%20of%20actions%20under,in%20accordance%20with%20the%20Constitution. 

4. Current status of the introduction of African cheetahs

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. The Cheetah Action Plan (CAP) is an ambitious effort to introduce African cheetahs into the Indian ecosystems.
2. In India, Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh was found to be the most suitable for introducing the cheetahs.
3. The African cheetahs are protected as critically endangered under IUCN red list.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Project Cheetah has encountered significant setbacks, including prolonged captivity and cheetah fatalities; with long-term success hinging on finding sufficient habitat, scientific management, and community support, the project’s future depends on overcoming these enormous challenges

Project Cheetah: 

• The Cheetah Action Plan (CAP) represents India’s ambitious effort to introduce African cheetahs into its ecosystems, with a focus on both conserving the species and restoring the health of savanna habitats. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• However, the project has faced several challenges since its inception, including extended captivity of the cheetahs and fatalities, raising questions about its long-term prospects.
• The CAP states that the translocation of a large carnivore, African cheetahs in this case, is a strategy to conserve threatened species and restore ecosystem functions. 
• It also states that India plans to assist the Government of Iran, and the international conservation community with conserving the Asiatic cheetah and increasing its distribution range to include protected landscapes in India.
• The CAP also says cheetahs will be a flagship species for the degraded dry-open forest/savanna ecosystems in India and increase the value of restoring and conserving them, as well as improve the fortunes of local communities through eco-tourism. 
• It has been estimated that the released population should reach the carrying capacity of Kuno National Park in about 15 years and that of the wider Kuno landscape in 30-40 years. 
• According to the CAP, the introduction programme requires long-term (at least 25 years) financial, technical, and administrative commitments from the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC), the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), the Madhya Pradesh Forest Department, and the Wildlife Institute of India.
• The CAP states that 10 sites were surveyed in five central Indian States to determine their suitability for introducing African cheetahs. Of these, Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh was found to be the most suitable for introducing the cheetahs because of its habitat and adequate prey base. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/what-is-the-current-status-of-the-introduction-of-african-cheetahs/article68649455.ece 

5. Trilobite

Q. “Trilobite” is often discussed in the context of:

1. Radio collars for wildlife tracking
2. A group of extinct arthropods
3. Clonal propagation of crop plants
4. Reused plastic containers

Answer: (b) A group of extinct arthropods

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Trilobite fossils from upstate New York reveal extra set of legs 

• A new study finds that a trilobite species with exceptionally well-preserved fossils from upstate New York has an additional set of legs underneath its head. 
• The research, led by the American Museum of Natural History and Nanjing University in China, suggests that having a fifth pair of head appendages might be more widespread among trilobites than once thought. Published in the journalPalaeontology,the study helps researchers better understand how trilobite heads are segmented.
• Trilobites are a group of extinct arthropods whose living relatives include lobsters and spiders. Hence option (b) is correct.
• Like other arthropods, the bodies of trilobites are made up of many segments, with the head region comprised of several fused segments. 
• As with other parts of the trilobite body (the thorax and tail), these segments were associated with appendages, which ranged in function from sensing to feeding to locomotion.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/trilobite-fossils-from-upstate-new-york-reveal-extra-set-of-legs/article68638836.ece 

6. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)

Q. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: FDI is considered a stable, long-term commitment to a country’s economy.

Statement-II: The FDI  investors aim to establish a lasting presence in a foreign market with an investment of 10% or more. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Explanation: 

In NEWS: ‘FDI from India on a steady growth since 2019’

• The Bahrain Economic Development Board (Bahrain EDB), with a mandate to attract investments into the kingdom, said it had been receiving steady investments from various sectors, including financial services, manufacturing, logistics and technology from India since 2019.
• Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) from India to Bahrain have been growing at 36% between 2019 and 2023, adding an average of $102 million a year, with total FDI stock reaching $1.52 billion in 2023, it claimed.

Foreign Direct Investment (FDI):

• FDI refers to the investment made by a foreign entity (individual or company) in the business operations of another country. This type of investment typically involves establishing new businesses, acquiring assets, or taking a significant ownership stake in an existing company to influence decision-making and operations.

Characteristics:

• Long-term investment: FDI is considered a stable, long-term commitment to a country’s economy. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Investors often acquire a significant ownership stake in a foreign company, typically 10% or more. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Control and Management: Investors often seek to have control over the company’s operations, such as management decisions and business strategy.
• Examples: A foreign company building factories or acquiring a large share in an Indian company.

Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI):

• FPI refers to the investment made by foreign investors in a country’s financial markets, such as stocks, bonds, or other financial assets. Unlike FDI, FPI does not seek direct control over the companies in which the investment is made.

Characteristics:

• Short-term investment: FPI is more volatile and can be easily withdrawn, as it involves financial instruments that are traded in stock or bond markets.
• No Control: FPI investors typically do not have significant influence or control over the management or operations of the companies they invest in.
• Examples: A foreign investor purchasing shares in an Indian company listed on the stock market.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/fdi-from-india-on-a-steady-growth-since-2019-claims-bahrain-edb/article68635202.ece#:~:text=The%20Bahrain%20Economic%20Development%20Board,technology%20from%20India%20since%202019. 

7. Global Renewable Energy Investor’s Meet and Expo (RE-INVEST)

Q. With reference to RE-INVEST, consider the following statements.

1. It is a flagship event organized by the Government of India to promote investment in the renewable energy sector.
2. It is aligned with India’s goal of achieving 500 GW of renewable energy capacity by 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi inaugurates 4th Global Renewable Energy Investor’s Meet and Expo (RE-INVEST) in Gandhinagar, Gujarat.

• The 3-day summit honours the important contributors to India’s remarkable achievement of over 200 GW of installed non-fossil fuel capacity. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Recounting the global events hosted by India in the last one month, Shri Modi said that Global Fintech Fest was organized earlier in this month, people from across the globe participated in the First International Solar Festival, Global Semiconductor Summit, India also hosted the 2nd Asia-Pacific Civil Aviation Ministerial Conference and today India is hosting a conference of Green Energy.
• India is the first G20 nation to achieve the climate commitments set in Paris, that too 9 years before the deadline. Shri Modi outlined the nation’s goals to achieve the target of 500 GW of renewable energy by 2030 and said that the government has turned the green transition into a people’s movement. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• He suggested studying India’s unique scheme for Rooftop Solar – PM Surya Ghar Free Electricity Scheme where the government funds a Rooftop Solar Setup for every family and helps in installation.
• PM Suyra Ghar scheme is becoming a medium of employment generation and environment protection generating around 20 lakh jobs.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2055461 

8. BHASKAR Platform

Q. Which of the following statements best describes the aim of ‘BHASKAR Platform’,recently seen in the news?

1. Strengthening India’s startup ecosystem. 
2. Impart training in soft skills, financial and digital literacy.
3. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions.
4. Achieving 100% literacy in government’s education system

Answer: (a) Strengthening India’s startup ecosystem. 

Explanation: 

In NEWS: DPIIT to launch BHASKAR: A Revolutionary Platform for India’s Startup Ecosystem 

BHASKAR Platform:

• The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is set to launch a groundbreaking digital platform aimed at strengthening India’s startup ecosystem. 
• The Bharat Startup Knowledge Access Registry (BHASKAR) initiative, under the Startup India program, is a platform designed to centralize, streamline, and enhance collaboration among key stakeholders within the entrepreneurial ecosystem, including startups, investors, mentors, service providers, and government bodies.  Hence option (a) is correct.
• This initiative aligns with the Government of India’s vision to transform India into a global leader in innovation and entrepreneurship, reinforcing the country’s commitment to the startup movement.

Key Features of BHASKAR:

• The primary goal of BHASKAR is to build the world’s largest digital registry for stakeholders within the startup ecosystem. To achieve this, the platform will offer several key features:
• Networking and Collaboration: BHASKAR will bridge the gap between startups, investors, mentors, and other stakeholders, allowing for seamless interaction across sectors.
• Providing Centralized Access to Resources: By consolidating resources, the platform will provide startups with immediate access to critical tools and knowledge, enabling faster decision-making and more efficient scaling.
• Creating Personalized Identification: Every stakeholder will be assigned a unique BHASKAR ID, ensuring personalized interactions and tailored experiences across the platform.
• Enhancing Discoverability: Through powerful search features, users can easily locate relevant resources, collaborators, and opportunities, ensuring faster decision-making and action.
• Supporting India’s Global Brand: BHASKAR will serve as a vehicle for promoting India’s global reputation as a hub for innovation, making cross-border collaborations more accessible to startups and investors alike. 

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2055243 

9. Port Blair

Q. Port Blair is situated in 

1. North Andaman
2. South Andaman
3. Little Andaman
4. Great Nicobar 

Answer: (b) South Andaman

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Port Blair renamed as Sri Vijaya Puram 

• Union Minister Amit Shah announced that the  Andaman and Nicobar Islands capital, Port Blair, will be renamed ‘Sri Vijaya Puram.’ 
• This decision is part of Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s vision to remove colonial-era names and celebrate India’s freedom struggle and history. The new name reflects the historical significance of the region and its connection to ancient Indian empires, especially the Chola dynasty.

The Origin of the Name ‘Port Blair’

• Port Blair which was located in South Andaman was named after Archibald Blair, a British naval surveyor who explored the Andaman Islands in the late 1700s. Originally, the place was called Port Cornwallis, named after Commodore William Cornwallis, a British naval officer. However, it was later renamed to honor Blair, who conducted a thorough survey of the area. Hence option (b) is correct.

Colonial History of the Andaman Islands

• During the British colonial period, the East India Company wanted to use the Andaman Islands as a strategic location for military purposes. They also needed a safe harbor from pirates in the region. After the Revolt of 1857, the British established a penal colony on the islands, where they sent many prisoners, including freedom fighters.

Key Historical Events in Port Blair

• One of the most important landmarks in Port Blair is the Cellular Jail, built in 1906. This prison, also known as “Kaala Paani,” was where many Indian freedom fighters, including Veer Savarkar, were jailed under harsh conditions. The jail has become a symbol of the sacrifices made during India’s fight for independence
• Historical evidence shows that the Andaman Islands were once used as a naval base by the Chola emperor Rajendra I during the 11th century. He launched an expedition against the Srivijaya Empire, which was located in present-day Indonesia. At that time, the islands were referred to as Ma-Nakkavaram, and this name is believed to have influenced the modern name “Nicobar.”

Debates on the Chola-Srivijaya Conflict

• Scholars have different opinions on why the Chola Empire attacked Srivijaya. Some believe it was due to trade disputes, while others see it as part of the Chola dynasty’s efforts to expand its influence in Southeast Asia. This interaction led to significant military and cultural exchanges between the regions.

Source:  https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andaman-and-nicobar-islands/bjp-vs-congress-over-renaming-of-port-blair-as-sri-vijaya-puram/article68641477.ece 

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-history/port-blair-sri-vijaya-puram-cholas-9566312/

10. In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20? (UPSC PYQ 2020)

(a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey

(b) Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand

(c) Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam

(d) Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea.

Answer: (a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey