1. CPI and WPI

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. CPI reflects the final prices paid by consumers; WPI reflects wholesale prices before the goods reach consumers.

2. The WPI does not capture changes in the price of services, which CPI does.

3. The Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: 

In NEWS: WPI inflation slows to 4-month low of 1.31% 

India’s wholesale price index (WPI)-based inflation cooled to a 4-month low of 1.31% in August, down from 2.04% in July, primarily due to reduced prices of manufactured products and food items. Data from the Commerce Ministry revealed that food price inflation stood at 3.11%, compared to 3.45% in July.

CPI (Consumer Price Index) and WPI (Wholesale Price Index): 

  • CPI (Consumer Price Index) and WPI (Wholesale Price Index) are two key indicators used to measure inflation in an economy, but they do so at different stages and levels of the supply chain. 

Consumer Price Index (CPI):

  • CPI measures the change in the price level of a basket of consumer goods and services, such as food, clothing, housing, transport, etc., over time.
  • It directly affects consumers, as it tracks the prices they pay for goods and services.
  • Data source: Retail prices, collected from various markets and urban areas.
  • Base year: The CPI is calculated with a base year (currently 2012 in India), and the index reflects how much prices have changed compared to that year.
  • Use: It is used to adjust wages, salaries, pensions, and also to measure inflation at the consumer level.
  • The Reserve Bank of India has now adopted CPI (Combined) as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Wholesale Price Index (WPI):

  • WPI tracks the change in the price of goods at the wholesale level, i.e., prices at the stage before the retail level.
  • It impacts producers and wholesalers, and indirectly consumers, by reflecting the cost pressures in the supply chain.
  • Data source: Prices at the wholesale level, focusing on bulk transactions of goods.
  • Base year: Similar to CPI, it has a base year for comparison.
  • Use: It is often used by policymakers to monitor inflation in manufacturing and production, and also in calculating industrial growth.

Key Differences:

  • Coverage: CPI includes services, while WPI only includes goods. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • End user: CPI reflects the final prices paid by consumers; WPI reflects wholesale prices before goods reach consumers. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Impact: CPI influences consumer behaviour directly, while WPI impacts production and cost at an earlier stage in the economy.
PYQ REFERENCE:Q. Consider the following statements:1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI).2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.3. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3

Source: The Hindu

https://www.ibef.org/news/wpi-inflation-drops-to-4-month-low-of-1-31-in-august-on-lower-prices#:~:text=India’s%20wholesale%20price%20index%20(WPI,compared%20to%203.45%25%20in%20July.

2. Windfall tax

Q. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The government can use windfall taxes to curb inflation.

Statement-II: It can capture excessive profits that might contribute to rising prices.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Windfall tax on petroleum crude slashed to ’zero’ with effect from THIS date; Diesel, ATF retained at nil 

  • The windfall tax is revised every 15 days based on the average oil prices in two weeks. It is charged as Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED), which is a tax on the profit made from domestically produced crude oil.
  • The SAED on the export of diesel, petrol and jet fuel or ATF, has been kept as ‘nil’ as per the new notification. This new revision comes after a major decline in crude oil prices.

Windfall tax:

  • A windfall tax is a one-time tax levied by the government on companies or industries that have unexpectedly high profits, typically due to favorable external factors or circumstances beyond their control. 
  • The idea is to capture a portion of these “excess” profits, which are seen as being unearned or extraordinary, for public benefit.

Purpose:

  • Redistribution: To redistribute excess profits to fund public welfare programs, infrastructure, or other social services.
  • Address Inequities: To address perceived inequities when companies benefit disproportionately from events that negatively impact consumers or the economy, such as rising oil prices during global crises.
  • Control Inflation: In some cases, governments use windfall taxes to curb inflation by capturing excessive profits that might contribute to rising prices. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct.

Source: https://www.livemint.com/economy/windfall-tax-on-petroleum-crude-slashed-to-zero-with-effect-from-this-date-diesel-atf-retained-at-nil-11726593751516.html 

3. Appointment of High Court Judge

Q. As per Article 217 of the Constitution of India, To be appointed as a judge of a High Court, a person must

  1. Be a citizen of India.
  2. Have at least 10 years of experience as an advocate in one or more High Courts or have served for at least 10 years in a judicial office in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Supreme Court modifies earlier list of Chief Justices for seven High Courts

The Supreme Court Collegium on Tuesday tweaked its July 11 recommendations for appointment of the Chief Justices of seven high courts (HC).

The Appointment of High Court Judge:

  • The appointment of High Court (HC) judges in India is governed by Articles 217 and 224 of the Constitution of India. 
  • It involves multiple steps and consultation processes between various constitutional authorities, particularly the President of India, the Governor, and the Collegium of Judges.

Process for Appointment of High Court Judges:

1. Eligibility Criteria (Article 217): To be appointed as a judge of a High Court, a person must:

  • Be a citizen of India.
  • Have at least 10 years of experience as an advocate in one or more High Courts, or
  • Have served for at least 10 years in a judicial office in India. Hence both the statements are correct.

2. Initiation of the Process:

  • The process for appointing judges begins at the High Court level. The Chief Justice of the concerned High Court consults senior judges of the court and forwards the names of eligible advocates or judicial officers to the Collegium of the Supreme Court.
  • This Collegium is a group of senior judges, including the Chief Justice of India (CJI) and the two most senior judges of the Supreme Court.

3. Role of the High Court Collegium:

  • The Chief Justice of the concerned High Court, along with the senior-most judges of the High Court (called the High Court Collegium), prepares a list of potential candidates based on merit, integrity, and seniority.
  • This recommendation is sent to the Supreme Court Collegium for further consideration.

4. Role of the Supreme Court Collegium:

  • The Supreme Court Collegium, headed by the Chief Justice of India, reviews the recommendations of the High Court Collegium.
  • The Collegium assesses the candidates’ qualifications, judicial record, and reputation.
  • After consideration, the Collegium forwards its recommendations to the Union Law Ministry.

5. Consultation with the State and Central Government:

  • The Union Law Ministry sends the Collegium’s recommendations to the respective Governor of the state and the Chief Minister for their views.
  • After obtaining their opinions, the Law Ministry prepares a file and sends it to the President of India.

6. Appointment by the President:

  • The President of India formally appoints the High Court judges after receiving the recommendations from the Supreme Court Collegium and the views of the state government.
  • The President issues a warrant of appointment, and the new judges take an oath of office.

Tenure and Retirement:

  • High Court judges hold office until they reach the age of 62 years.
  • They can resign before completing their term or be removed from office through impeachment by Parliament for proven misbehavior or incapacity.

Ad Hoc Judges (Article 224):

  • If there is a temporary shortage of judges due to vacancies or heavy workload, the Chief Justice of a High Court can recommend the appointment of ad hoc judges.
  • These judges are appointed temporarily by the President until the permanent appointments are made.

Recent Reforms and Challenges:

  • The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) was a recent attempt to reform the appointment process by replacing the Collegium system, but it was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015.
  • The Collegium system has faced criticism for being opaque, but it remains the current method of appointing judges.
PYQ REFERENCE:Q. With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the president of India.2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?a) 1 onlyb) 2 onlyc) Both 1 and 2d) Neither 1 nor 2

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/supreme-court-modifies-earlier-list-of-cjs-for-seven-high-courts-9573258/ 

4. Raja mircha

Q. It is one of the hottest chillies in the world, surpassing 1 million Scoville heat units (SHU). It is highly valued for its fiery heat and cultivated mainly in Nagaland. It holds Geographical Indication (GI) status since 2008. Its unique flavour and intensity have gained it global recognition, including a Guinness World Record in 2006. It is celebrated as king chilli in Seiyhama village in Nagaland. Which among the following chilli species is described above ?

  1. Raja mircha
  2. Red Cayenne Pepper
  3. Guntur Chilli
  4. Sankeshwari

Answer: (a) Raja mircha

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Nagaland village’s king chilli festival ignites community spirit

Raja mircha: 

  • Seiyhama village in Nagaland celebrated the third edition of the Naga king chilli festival on September 6, 2024, a vibrant event that fused tradition, agriculture and community spirit. 
  • The festival, now a hallmark of Seiyhama’s cultural and agricultural identity, highlighted the importance of the Naga king chilli, one of the world’s hottest chillies and the deep-rooted connection between the people and their land.
  • At the heart of the celebration was the revered Naga king chilli, also known as raja mircha, a spice renowned globally for its extreme heat, which exceeds 1 million Scoville heat units (SHU)
  • Ranked among the hottest chillies in the world, the king chilli holds significant cultural and economic value for the Naga people.
  • It was certified by Guinness World Records in 2006 for its intense heat and received the prestigious Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2008, further solidifying its status in the global spice market. Hence option (a) is correct.

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/agriculture/fiery-traditions-nagaland-villages-king-chilli-festival-ignites-community-spirit 

5. Disputed areas in NEWS

Q. Consider the following pairs:

S.noRegions often mentioned in newsReason for being in news
Demchok and DepsangIndia and China
Grygorivka and GalytsynivkaRussia and Ukraine
Gaza strip and West BankIsrael and Palestine

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation: 

In NEWS: No progress in resolution of Demchok and Depsang friction points in 2 years 

  • There has been much hype over External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar’s comments that 75% of disengagement has been completed by India and China along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) in eastern Ladakh and the Chinese response that both sides have undertaken disengagement from four areas in the border areas.
  • However, the fact remains that both sides have undertaken mutually agreed and verified disengagement from five friction points while two more friction points, Demchok and Depsang, remain and there has been no progress towards their resolution in the past two years.
  • The widespread optimism, once again, of a possible breakthrough between the two countries in achieving further disengagement in the four-year-long stand-off, comes in the run-up to the BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) Summit in October, which both Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Chinese President Xi Jinping are scheduled to attend. This is akin to a similar situation last year before the BRICS Summit in August.
  • Since the Corps commander-level talks in 2020, the two sides have so far undertaken disengagement from five friction points
    • from Galwan after the violent clash in June 2020, 
    • from the North and South Banks of Pangong Tso in February 2021, 
    • from Patrolling Point (PP) 17 in the Gogra-Hot Springs area in August 2021 and PP15 in September 2022. The last disengagement, from PP15, was a result of the understanding reached during the 16th round of Corps Commander-level military talks on July 17, 2022.
PYQ REFERENCE:Q. Consider the following pairs:Regions often mentioned in news: Reason for being in news1 North Kivu and Ituri : War between Armenia and Azerbaijan2 Nagorno-Karabakh : Insurgency in Mozambique3 Kherson and Zaporizhzhia : Dispute between Israel and LebanonHow many of the above pairs are correctly matched?(a) Only one(b) Only two(c) All three(d) None

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/explained-what-are-the-friction-points-on-the-lac/article66928561.ece 

6. Mini Moon

Q. With reference to PT5 commonly known as ‘mini moon’, consider the following statements.

  1. It is an artificially made moon by NASA to orbit the Earth for 53 days.
  2. It follows a path known as “horseshoe orbiters” due to its shape around Earth and the Sun.

Select the correct using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: 

In NEWS:

  • Earth is set to temporarily capture a new mini-moon, a small asteroid named 2024 PT5, from September 29 to November 25. Discovered by the Asteroid Terrestrial-Impact Last Alert System, this 10-meter-wide asteroid will orbit Earth for 53 days before resuming its journey through the solar system. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • 2024 PT5 will circle the Earth one time before it escapes back into space,” the researchers stated in their paper. This event is known as a “temporarily captured flyby,” where an asteroid enters Earth’s gravity but does not make multiple orbits.
  • Similar occurrences have been observed in the past. For example, in 2006, an asteroid orbited Earth for nearly a year, and another did so for several years before leaving in 2020. These temporary captures occur frequently as Earth intermittently captures small asteroids from the Near-Earth Object (NEO) population.
  • Asteroids like 2024 PT5 follow paths known as “horseshoe orbiters” due to their shape around Earth and the Sun. These bodies often approach Earth at low speeds, allowing temporary capture. Most mini-moons, however, do not complete a full orbit around Earth before returning to their heliocentric paths. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • The origins of the 2024 PT5 asteroid are also of interest. Researchers suggest it likely comes from the Arjuna asteroid group, which has an orbit around the Sun similar to Earth’s. This conclusion is based on the asteroid’s path closely matching other natural objects, dismissing the notion that it is space debris.

A near-Earth object: 

  • A near-Earth object is an asteroid or comet which passes close to the Earth’s orbit. 
  • In technical terms, a NEO is considered to have a trajectory which brings it within 1.3 astronomical units of the Sun and hence within 0.3 astronomical units, or approximately 45 million kilometres, of the Earth’s orbit.

Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/science/earth-to-get-a-new-moon-meet-2024-pt5-our-temporary-mini-moon-for-53-days/articleshow/113355633.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst 

7. Carbon market

Q. With reference to the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), consider the following statements.

  1. The carbon market sets emission targets and allows overachievers to sell their excess emission cuts, while underachievers purchase them to meet their goals.
  2. India targets to reduce the emission intensity of its GDP by 30 per cent from 2005 levels by 2045.
  3. India also aims to become a net-zero emitter by 2070.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation: 

In NEWS: India to get its own carbon market

  • India is on the verge of creating a carbon market. The move will set emissions targets for emitters and allow overachievers to sell their excess emission cuts, while underachievers will have to purchase them to meet their goals. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The market will be created once the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), notified in June 2023, comes into force.

Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS):

  • CCTS is a market-based mechanism to reduce or limit emissions. Its genesis lies in India’s commitment to meet its Nationally Determined Contributions—emissions reduction target for 2030 committed under the Paris Agreement of 2016. 
  • One of India’s targets is to reduce the “emissions intensity of its GDP by 45 per cent from 2005 levels by 2030”. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
  • In 2021, India also declared the target of becoming a net-zero emitter by 2070. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • These global commitments and the increasing impacts of climate change on India generated a need to limit emissions, leading the government to launch new policies and instruments. CCTS is one such instrument.

The Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM): 

  • The Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), a tariff to be imposed by the European Union from 2026 (under which the bloc will put an additional price on imported products on the basis of green-house gases emitted in manufacturing them) and the development of carbon markets by developing countries like China and Indonesia, have also likely driven India towards CCTS. 
  • The challenge, however, is to ensure that the scheme fulfils its purpose of reducing emissions.
PYQ REFERENCE:Q. Consider the following statements :Statement-I : Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.Statement-II : Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Q. Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the(a) long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emissions in a given year.(b) requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.(c) efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.(d) contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/india-to-get-its-own-carbon-market#:~:text=BEE%20officials%20say%20CCTS%20will,the%20Paris%20Agreement%20of%202016

8. Global Bio-India 2024

Q. With reference to ‘Global Bio-India 2024’, consider the following statements.

  1. It is India’s one of the top biotechnology gatherings, aimed at building global partnerships.
  2. It focuses on Biotech Innovation and Bio-manufacturing in areas like healthcare, agriculture, and the environment, as well as boosting investment opportunities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Global Bio-India 2024 successfully concludes with India Showcasing Its Biotech Prowess 

  • The event was organized by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and the Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC) and took place from September 12-14 at Pragati Maidan, New Delhi.
  • The theme for this year was ‘Biotech Innovation’ and ‘Bio-manufacturing’, emphasizing the importance of these areas in boosting India’s Bioeconomy. 
  • During the event, 11 new products developed by Indian biotech startups were introduced, showing the growing talent and creativity in the country.

About Global Bio-India 2024:

  • This event is one of India’s top biotechnology gatherings, aimed at building global partnerships. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • It featured over 500 exhibitors and attracted more than 20,000 attendees. The focus was on innovation in areas like healthcare, agriculture, and the environment, as well as boosting investment opportunities. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • The event emphasized India’s commitment to biotechnology and its potential to lead in global biotech advancements.

Awards and Recognitions:

  • BIRAC Innovators Awards
  • Best Startup Exhibitor Awards
  • Best Incubator Exhibitor Awards
  • BioE3 Competition Awards

Government Initiatives: 

  • The government also announced new initiatives to promote innovation in biotechnology. 
  • These include the i4 (Innovation for Industry) program and the PACE (Promoting Academic Collaboration and Entrepreneurship) program, both designed to encourage collaboration between academia and industry.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2055047 

9. Typhoon Yagi

Q. With reference to tropical cyclones, Consider the following statements:

  1. According to the NOAA, Storm systems with wind speeds of 252 kmph and above are classified as tropical cyclones.
  2. As per the Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale, Storms that reach Category 3 and higher are considered major tropical cyclones.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Typhoon Yagi, Standing Committee on Statistics, Competitive bidding and more.

  • Millions of people in Southeast Asia continue to struggle with torrential rains, floods, and landslides triggered by Typhoon Yagi 
  • It is the strongest tropical cyclone Asia has seen this year and the second most powerful storm in the world so far this year after Hurricane Beryl.
  • While Typhoon Yagi has severely impacted multiple countries, including the Philippines, China, Laos, Myanmar, and Thailand, it has hit Vietnam the hardest, where the death toll stands at around 233. The overall toll across these countries has crossed 300 as of last week. As many people are still missing, it is expected to rise further.

Formation of the Tropical cyclones:

  • Tropical cyclones form over warm ocean waters near the equator. When the warm, moist air from the ocean surface rises upward, a lower air pressure area is formed below. Air from surrounding areas with higher air pressure rushes into this low pressure area, eventually rising, after it also becomes warm and moist.
  • As warm, moist air rises, it cools down, and the water in the air forms clouds and thunderstorms. This whole system of clouds and winds gains strength and momentum using the ocean’s heat, and the water that evaporates from its surface.
  • Higher sea surface temperatures cause marine heat waves, an extreme weather event, which can also make storms like hurricanes and tropical cyclones more intense.
  • According to the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA). Storm systems with wind speeds of 119 kmph and above are classified as hurricanes, typhoons, or tropical cyclones. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

The category of a tropical cyclone:

  • The category of a tropical cyclone is determined by its sustained wind speed, as measured by the Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale. 
  • It is classified into five categories — Category 1 to Category 5.
    • Category 1 tropical cyclones bring winds of 119 to 153 kmph, 
    • Category 5 tropical cyclones, which are the strongest, have winds of 252 kmph or higher. 
    • Storms that reach Category 3 and higher are considered major tropical cyclones due to their potential to inflict significant damage. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/upsc-current-affairs/upsc-key-typhoon-yagi-standing-committee-on-statistics-competitive-bidding-and-more-9571029/ 

https://www.nhc.noaa.gov/aboutsshws.php

10. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide? (UPSC PYQ 2022)

(a) Cotton

(b) Rice

(c) Sugarcane

(d) Wheat

Answer: (b) Rice

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