Daily Current Affairs – 02-10-2025

1. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I : October 2 is globally declared as the International Day of Non-Violence by the United Nations.

Statement-II: It was in 1920 that the Non – cooperation movement was launched on the same day.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

Explanation:

In NEWS:

• October 2 is celebrated as Gandhi Jayanti and globally as the International Day of Non-Violence, as declared by the United Nations – a dual tribute that reflects both national pride and global respect for the Mahatma. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The UN General Assembly adopted a resolution in June 2007 affirming non-violence as a universal principle and promoting a global culture of peace and tolerance.
• The spirit of Gandhi Jayanti and the International Day of Non-Violence is kept alive globally, with commemorations held in countries such as Belgium, USA, Spain, Serbia, Switzerland, Thailand, Kazakhstan and the Netherlands.

Gandhi’s Contribution

“Non-violence is the greatest force at the disposal of mankind. It is mightier than the mightiest weapon of destruction devised by the ingenuity of man,” Gandhi wrote in Young India in 1920

1. Political Contribution

• Non-Violent Mass Movements: Introduced and popularized Satyagraha (truth-force) and Ahimsa (non-violence) as tools of resistance.
• Champaran (1917): First experiment of Satyagraha against indigo planters’ exploitation.
• Kheda Satyagraha (1918): Supported peasants against oppressive revenue demands.
• Ahmedabad Mill Strike (1918): Advocated for workers’ rights, mediated between labor and capital.
• Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–22): Launched by Mahatma Gandhi on 1st August 1920 which mobilized millions against colonial institutions (courts, schools, titles). Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• Civil Disobedience (1930–34): Dandi March symbolized defiance of British monopoly on salt.
• Quit India Movement (1942): “Do or Die” call became the final push for independence.

2. Social Contribution

• Eradication of Untouchability: Started Harijan Sevak Sangh (1932), promoted temple entry and social equality.
• Women’s Participation: Encouraged women like Sarojini Naidu, Kasturba Gandhi, and Aruna Asaf Ali to join the struggle.
• Village Upliftment (Gram Swaraj): Advocated self-reliant villages, use of khadi, cottage industries, and local governance.
• Promotion of Education: Nai Talim (Basic Education) emphasized craft-based, value-oriented learning.

3. Economic Contribution

• Swadeshi & Self-Reliance: Promoted khadi, boycott of foreign goods, revival of village industries.
• Decentralized Economy: Opposed industrial exploitation, supported small-scale, rural-based production.

4. Religious & Ethical Contribution

• Unity of Religions: Advocated Hindu-Muslim unity, harmony among all faiths.
• Ethics in Politics: Introduced moral principles into political life.
• Spiritualised Nationalism: His fight against colonialism was also a moral and spiritual battle.

Relevance in Today’s India – Government Initiatives Linked to Gandhian Ideas

1. Swachh Bharat Mission – Launched in 2014, achieved Open Defecation Free status in 2019; millions of toilets built.

2. Self-Help Groups under DAY-NRLM – Empowering women, large-scale mobilization and bank linkages.

3. SVAMITVA Scheme – Drone-based land mapping and issuance of property cards for village self-reliance.

4. Khadi and Village Industries (KVIC) – Growth in production, sales and employment aligned with Gandhian swadeshi ideals.

5. PM Janjatiya Unnat Gram Abhiyan (PM JUGA/DAJGUA) – New programme for tribal welfare launched in 2024.

6. MGNREGA – Reinforces rural employment and dignity of labour.

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2173476

2. With the recent approval of the ‘National Pulses Mission’ in India, consider the following statements:

I. India is the largest producer, consumer, and exporter of pulses globally.

II. Under National Pulses Mission the government assures 100% procurement of Minimum Support Prize (MSP) for tur, urad, and lentil.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  

(a) I only  

(b) II only  

(c) Both 1 and II  

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b) II only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Union Cabinet Approves the Ambitious ‘National Pulses Mission’; Key Decision To Increase MSP.

India on Pulses:

• India is the largest producer, consumer, and importer of pulses. Hence statement I is incorrect.
• Pulses are vital for nutritional security, rich in protein and micronutrients.
• Despite high demand, India often faces shortages, leading to imports.
• To reduce dependence, the Government has launched a dedicated National Pulses Mission.

Objectives & Targets of the National Pulses Mission:

• To achieve self-sufficiency in pulses, enhance food & nutritional security, and boost farmer incomes.
• The production target: Increase pulses output from 24.2 million tonnes (2024–25) to 35 million tonnes by 2030–31.
• The scheme will roll out in 416 districts, focusing on:
  • Cultivating in rice fallow areas
  • Use of improved seeds (breeder, foundation, certified)
  • Promoting intercropping
  • Providing irrigation support, technical assistance
  • Strengthening market linkages
• For tur, urad, and lentils, the government will procure at 100 % MSP, ensuring full returns to farmers. Hence statement II is incorrect.
• The Mission is allocated ₹11,440 crore for the year 2025–26.

Significance

• Reduces import bill (India imports ~2–3 MMT pulses annually).
• Improves nutritional security by addressing protein deficiency.
• Boosts income of small and marginal farmers.
• Supports crop diversification and sustainable agriculture.
• Aligns with SDGs (Zero Hunger, Good Health, Poverty Reduction).
• The National Pulses Mission is a landmark step to transform India from a net importer to a self-reliant nation in pulses, ensuring nutritional security, farmer welfare, and sustainable agriculture by 2030.

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2173785

3. With reference to the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), Consider the following statements:

1. It is a constitutional body established by the President under the provisions mentioned in the constitution of India.

2. It submits an annual report to the Prime Minister, who in turn lays it before both Houses of Parliament.

3. The advice tendered by the UPSC is mandatory for the government to accept and implement its recommendations.

4. Members of the UPSC, including the Chairman, can be removed only by the President of India, and only on the grounds of proven misbehavior, following an inquiry by the Supreme Court.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

In NEWS: A 100-year journey as the guardian of meritocracy

Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)

Constitutional Status

• Article 315 to 323 of the Constitution deals with UPSC and State PSCs.
• UPSC is a constitutional body, ensuring impartial recruitment and services regulation.
• Article 315: Establishment of UPSC for the Union and SPSC for States. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Article 316: Appointment & term of members (Chairman appointed by President, tenure – 6 years or until age 65).
• Article 317: Removal and suspension by President (on SC inquiry).
• Article 318: Power to regulate conditions of service of members.
• Article 319: Members ineligible for reappointment to UPSC/SPSC, but eligible for other posts.
• Article 320: Functions of UPSC.
• Article 321–323: Extension of functions, expenses, and reports.

Composition

• Consists of a Chairman and other members (no fixed number; determined by President).
• Half of the members must have held government office for at least 10 years.
• Members hold office for 6 years or until age 65, whichever is earlier.

Functions of UPSC

1. Recruitment to All-India Services, Central Services, and Central posts.

• Conducts exams: Civil Services Exam, IFS, NDA, CDS, CAPF, etc.

2. Advisory Role:

• On recruitment methods, promotions, transfers.
• On disciplinary matters affecting civil servants.
• On claims for costs incurred by government servants in legal proceedings.
• On claims relating to pension/gratuity.

3. Reports:

• Submits an annual report to the President, laid before Parliament. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

4. Nature of Role: Advisory, not binding. The government can accept or reject UPSC’s advice, but usually follows it to maintain fairness. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Independence & Safeguards

• Conditions of service of Chairman/members fixed by President, but cannot be varied to their disadvantage.
• Removal only by the President on grounds of misbehavior, after the Supreme Court inquiry. Hence statement 4 is correct.
• Expenses charged on Consolidated Fund of India, not subject to parliamentary vote.

Significance

• Ensures merit-based recruitment and neutrality in public services.
• Protects civil servants from political influence.
• Contributes to maintaining the integrity and efficiency of Indian bureaucracy.

Limitations

• UPSC’s role is advisory only, not binding.
• The government can bypass advice (though rarely).
• Not consulted on certain temporary, lower-level or specialized posts.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/a-100-year-journey-as-the-guardian-of-meritocracy/article70113906.ece

4. Consider the following:

1. No significant rainfall over a large area for 5 consecutive days

2. Prevalence of anticyclonic circulation

3. A significant increase in humidity

How many of the above conditions announce the withdrawal of the Southwest Monsoon in India?

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two  

(c) All the three  

(d) None 

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

In NEWS: Southwest monsoon withdrawal on hold, October to be rainy with warm nights

• The Southwest Monsoon (SWM) is yet to fully withdraw from India, due to persistent low-pressure systems over the Bay of Bengal, causing lingering rainfall over various parts of the country.
• Though the IMD officially ends the monsoon season on 30 September, meteorological conditions (especially over east, central, and western India) still favour continued rain.
• Because of this delay, October is expected to be rainy, with nighttime temperatures being higher than normal (i.e. warm nights) across much of India.

Monsoon withdrawal is not sudden or uniform across the country. It happens gradually:

• Starts from West Rajasthan.
• Progresses over Northwest India, then Central India, and finally from the Southern Peninsula.
• After withdrawal is complete, Northeast Monsoon typically sets in over Tamil Nadu and adjoining areas.

Conditions Required for SW Monsoon Withdrawal:

As per the India Meteorological Department (IMD), the withdrawal of the Southwest Monsoon from northwest India starts when the following three major conditions are met:

1. Cessation of Rainfall

• No significant rainfall over a large area, especially in northwest India (Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, etc.), for 5 consecutive days. Hence 1 is correct.
• Typically, this dry spell signals the monsoon weakening and beginning to retreat.

2. Establishment of Anticyclonic Circulation

• Anticyclonic circulation (high pressure) develops at lower tropospheric levels (~850 hPa). Hence 2 is correct.
• This replaces the low-pressure monsoon troughs and inhibits the formation of rain-bearing systems.

3. Significant Drop in Moisture

• A reduction in humidity (lower moisture content in the mid-troposphere).  Hence 3 is incorrect.
• Wind patterns shift from moist southwesterlies to dry northwesterlies or northeasterlies in the upper levels.

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/southwest-monsoon-withdrawal-on-hold-october-to-be-rainy-with-warm-nights

5. Consider the following pairs:

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?  

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two  

(c) All the three  

(d) None 

Answer: (a) Only one  

Explanation:

In NEWS: Polar geoengineering projects could cause severe harm, scientists say

Geoengineering:

• Geoengineering involves intentionally intervening in the Earth’s climate system to counteract climate change, primarily by removing carbon dioxide (CDR) or managing solar radiation (SRM).
• While proposals range from artificial cloud brightening and stratospheric aerosol injection to ocean fertilization, these methods are unproven at scale and carry significant environmental and societal risks.

Geoengineering Methods:

Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR) Methods: These aim to remove CO₂ from the atmosphere and store it safely.

1. Afforestation and reforestation involve planting new forests or restoring old ones to absorb atmospheric CO₂.

2. Bioenergy with carbon capture and storage (BECCS) burns biomass for energy while capturing and storing the resulting CO₂ underground.

3. Direct air capture (DAC) uses chemical processes to extract CO₂ directly from the air and store it underground or reuse it.

4. Soil carbon sequestration enhances soil management practices to increase the amount of carbon stored in soil.

5. Ocean fertilisation adds nutrients (like iron) to oceans to stimulate phytoplankton growth, which absorbs CO₂. Hence pair 1 is incorrect.

6. Enhanced weathering spreads crushed minerals over land or in oceans to chemically react with and remove CO₂ from the air.

7. Blue carbon management protects and restores coastal ecosystems (like mangroves and seagrasses) that capture carbon.

Solar Radiation Management (SRM) Methods: These aim to reflect sunlight back into space to reduce global warming effects.

1. Stratospheric aerosol injection (SAI) releases reflective particles (like sulphur dioxide) into the upper atmosphere to block some sunlight. Hence pair 2 is incorrect.

2. Marine cloud brightening sprays sea salt into clouds to make them brighter and more reflective.

3. Surface albedo enhancement increases the reflectivity of land or built surfaces (e.g. white roofs or reflective crops).

4. Space-based reflectors propose placing mirrors or other reflective objects in space to block or deflect sunlight.

5. Cirrus cloud thinning aims to reduce the warming effect of high-altitude clouds by seeding them to encourage ice crystal formation.

Polar or Glacial Geoengineering Methods: These target polar ice sheets and glaciers to slow melting and sea level rise.

1. Subglacial water removal pumps water from beneath glaciers to slow their sliding into the ocean.

2. Sea curtains or seabed walls are physical barriers placed underwater to block warm ocean currents from reaching polar glaciers. Hence pair 3 is correct.

3. Sea ice thickening uses pumps to spray seawater onto ice surfaces so it freezes and strengthens the ice.

4. Glass microbeads spreading involves scattering reflective beads over ice to increase sunlight reflection and reduce melting.

Risks and Concerns: Geoengineering would not address the root causes of climate change but proposes to mask its effects, presenting significant new risks.

• Unintended Environmental Consequences: Geoengineering could interfere with natural ocean and terrestrial ecosystems, and sudden cessation of Solar Radiation Management (SRM) could worsen climate effects.
• Technical and Scientific Gaps: Few geoengineering methods are proven to work on a large scale, and their risks and uncertainties are not well understood.
• Moral Hazard: Some argue that the potential for geoengineering might discourage vital efforts to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
• Governance and Ethics: There are significant concerns about the governance of these cross-boundary technologies and questions about public consent. The Center for International Environmental Law (CIEL) highlights potential human rights impacts and disproportionate effects on vulnerable communities.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/polar-geoengineering-projects-could-cause-severe-harm-scientists-say/article70112422.ece

6. Consider the following pairs:

1. M. Visvesvaraya         : Founder of the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI)

2. Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy: First woman legislator in Madras Legislative Council, 1927 in India.

3. P.C. Mahalanobis       : Renowned civil engineer and served as Diwan of Mysore

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: How Visvesvaraya, Muthulakshmi and Mahalanobis shaped modern India

Sir M. Visvesvaraya (1860–1962) – Engineer & Nation-Builder

Contributions:

• Renowned civil engineer and statesman; served as Diwan of Mysore (1912–1918). Hence pair 1 is incorrect.
• Designed and implemented flood control systems, including the Krishna Raja Sagara (KRS) dam in Karnataka.
• Promoted industrialization in Mysore, setting up factories, hydroelectric projects, and modern infrastructure.
• Advocated planning and scientific approach to economic development; emphasized education and irrigation for rural prosperity.

Unique Aspect:

• Blend of engineering and governance — applied technical expertise to transform a state’s economy and infrastructure, earning him the title “Bharat Ratna” (1955).

Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy (1886–1968) – Social Reformer & Pioneer

Contributions:

• First woman legislator in India (Madras Legislative Council, 1927). Hence pair 2 is correct.
• Advocated women’s rights, child welfare, and abolition of the Devadasi system.
• Founded the Avvai Home for Destitute Women and Children and promoted healthcare and education for women.
• Instrumental in establishing Tamil Nadu’s first maternity and child welfare services.

Unique Aspect:

• Pioneer in women’s empowerment and social reform, breaking gender barriers in politics, medicine, and society.

P.C. Mahalanobis (1893–1972) – Statistician & Economic Planner

Contributions:

• Founder of the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) in 1931. Hence pair 3 is incorrect.
• Developed the Mahalanobis Distance, a key concept in multivariate statistics.
• Played a central role in India’s Second Five-Year Plan (1956); emphasized industrialization and heavy industries.
• Introduced statistical methods for economic planning and policy-making.

Unique Aspect:

• Merged science with economic planning — applied statistical analysis to guide India’s industrial growth and national development.

Source:https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_international/issues/150453/OPS/GU5EUFL0G.1+G45EVKS8V.1.html

7. Consider the following statements with respect to the Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP):

1. Manufacturer exporters and merchant exporters (traders) are both eligible for the benefits of this scheme.

2. To be eligible to avail the benefits of this scheme, the exported products need to have the country of origin as India.

3. Special Economic Zone Units and Export Oriented Units are not eligible to claim the benefits under this scheme.

4. There is a mandatory turnover threshold of 500cr that exporters must meet to claim the RoDTEP benefit.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Govt extends RoDTEP export incentive scheme till March 31, 2026, exporters welcome the move

The Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP):

• The Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP) is an incentive scheme launched by the Government of India to reimburse exporters for various central, state, and local duties and taxes incurred during the manufacturing and distribution process.
• The scheme, operational since January 1, 2021, replaced the Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS) to be compliant with World Trade Organization (WTO) norms.

Features of the RoDTEP Scheme:

Refund of Previously Non-Refundable Taxes

• Taxes like Mandi tax, VAT, Coal cess, and Excise duty on fuel are now refunded under RoDTEP — which were not covered under earlier schemes like MEIS or RoSCTL.

Covers Earlier Export Incentive Items

• Items under MEIS and RoSCTL are now brought under the scope of RoDTEP, ensuring continuity and broader coverage.

Automated Credit System

• Refunds are issued as transferable electronic scrips.
• These duty credits are maintained and tracked via a centralised electronic ledger.

Faster Processing via Digitisation

• Use of IT-based risk management system enables quicker verification and processing of exporter claims.
• Improves accuracy and speed of transactions.

Multi-Sector Coverage

• RoDTEP applies to all sectors, including textiles, ensuring uniform benefits.
• A dedicated committee decides rollout priorities and benefit rates for each sector.

Eligibility for RoDTEP Scheme:

• All sectors, including the textiles sector, may enjoy the benefits of the RoDTEP Scheme. Labor-intensive sectors that enjoy benefits under the MEIS Scheme will be given a priority.
• Manufacturer exporters and merchant exporters (traders) are both eligible for the benefits of this scheme. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• There is no particular turnover threshold to claim the RoDTEP. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
• Re-exported products are not eligible under this scheme.
• To be eligible to avail the benefits of this scheme, the exported products need to have the country of origin as India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Special Economic Zone Units and Export Oriented Units are also eligible to claim the benefits under this scheme. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• Where goods have been exported via courier through e-commerce platforms, RoDTEP scheme applies to them as well.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/govt-extends-export-benefits-under-rodtep-scheme-till-march-2026/article70112557.ece

8. With reference to the ‘Payments Regulatory Board Regulations, 2025’, consider the following statements:

1. It repeals the Board for Regulation and Supervision of Payment and Settlement Systems Regulations, 2008.

2. The 2025 Regulations retain the RBI Governor as the chairperson and specify that the regulatory board will only have the RBI Deputy Governor in charge of payment and settlement systems.

3. The members to be nominated by the government must have expertise in the fields of payment systems, be less than 70 years of age, not be an MP/MLA, and not have been convicted of an offence punishable with imprisonment of at least 180 days.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

In NEWS: RBI constitutes 6-member Payments Regulatory Board

Payments Regulatory Board Regulations, 2025:

• It repeals the Board for Regulation and Supervision of Payment and Settlement Systems Regulations, 2008. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The 2008 Regulations constituted a committee of the RBI’s central board for the regulation and supervision of payment and settlement systems.

Key changes include:

Composition: Under the 2008 Regulations, the committee comprised:

(i) RBI governor as the chairperson,

(ii) deputy governors, and

(iii) up to three directors of the central board.

• Two executive directors and the principal legal advisor of RBI were permanent invitees to the Board.
• It could also invite persons with experience in the fields of payment and settlement systems as permanent or temporary invitees.
• The 2025 Regulations retain the RBI Governor as the chairperson and specify that the regulatory board will only have the RBI Deputy Governor in charge of payment and settlement systems. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Instead of directors of the Central Board, the Board will nominate one RBI officer.
• Three persons will be nominated by the central government.
• RBI executive directors will no longer be permanent invitees to the Board.

Eligibility for nominated members: Members to be nominated by the central government must:

(i) have expertise in the fields of payment systems, information technology, or law,

(ii) be less than 70 years of age,

(iii) not be an MP/MLA, and

(iv) not have been convicted of an offence punishable with imprisonment of at least 180 days. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/mumbai/rbi-constitutes-6-member-payments-regulatory-board-10280813/

9. Consider the following statements with reference to Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri:

1. He signed the Tashkent Agreement (1966) with Pakistani President Ayub Khan.

2. He gave the slogan “Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan” during the 1965 Indo-Pak War.

3. He was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

In NEWS: Prime Minister Pays Tribute to Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri Ji on His Birth Anniversary

Major Contributions of Lal Bahadur Shastri:

Prime Minister of India (1964–1966)

• Took charge after Jawaharlal Nehru’s death in 1964.
• Led India during a critical period marked by economic challenges and external threats.

Gave the Slogan “Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan”  Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Coined the iconic phrase during the 1965 Indo-Pak War to:
• Motivate soldiers (Jawan) defending the country.
• Encourage farmers (Kisan) to boost food production.
• The slogan became a symbol of national unity and self-reliance.

Leadership During the 1965 Indo-Pak War

• Led the country with firm resolve during the war with Pakistan.
• Displayed strong military and diplomatic leadership.
• Signed the Tashkent Agreement (1966) with Pakistani President Ayub Khan, brokered by the USSR, to end the war. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Green Revolution Initiation

• Laid the foundation for the Green Revolution to tackle food shortages.
• Promoted the use of high-yield variety seeds, fertilizers, and modern farming techniques.
• Strengthened India’s push toward food self-sufficiency.

Emphasis on Self-Reliance

• Promoted indigenous industry and economic self-sufficiency.
• Encouraged citizens to voluntarily observe fasts to reduce food demand during shortages, setting a personal example.

Roles Before Prime Ministership

Held important portfolios like:

• Minister of Railways (resigned after a train accident, taking moral responsibility)
• Minister of Home Affairs

Death and Legacy

• Passed away on 11 January 1966 in Tashkent, Uzbekistan, under mysterious circumstances.
• Posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian award.  Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Remembered as a symbol of honesty, courage, and patriotism.

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2173982

10. Consider the following statements:

1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.

2. Some mushrooms have psycho-active properties.

3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.

4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Answer: (d) All four

Explanation:

• Many mushrooms (e.g., Reishi, Turkey Tail, Lion’s Mane) are known for medicinal properties like boosting immunity, reducing inflammation, and supporting brain health.
• Psychedelic mushrooms (e.g., Psilocybe cubensis) contain psilocybin, a compound with hallucinogenic effects. Used in traditional rituals and modern psychotherapy research.
• Certain mushrooms (e.g., Metarhizium and Beauveria species, which are fungi) are used as biological insecticides to control pests.
• Some mushrooms (e.g., Panellus stipticus, Mycena chlorophos) can glow in the dark due to bioluminescence.

Hence option (d) is correct.