1. With reference to Contempt of Court in India, consider the following statements:
I. Both the Supreme Court and High Courts are Courts of Record having the power to punish for their contempt.
II. Civil contempt refers to disobedience of a court order, while criminal contempt involves acts that scandalise or lower the authority of the court.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
In NEWS: What constitutes as contempt of court in India?
Contempt of Court in India
Constitutional Basis
- Article 129: The Supreme Court shall be a Court of Record and have the power to punish for its contempt.
- Article 215: The High Courts shall be Courts of Record and have similar powers. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Article 19(2): The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) can be reasonably restricted on grounds of contempt of court.
What is a “Court of Record”?
A Court of Record is one whose:
- Acts and judicial proceedings are recorded and preserved for perpetual memory and testimony.
- Records have evidentiary value and are not to be questioned in any court.
- Possesses inherent power to punish for contempt of itself.
Thus, the Supreme Court and High Courts are both Courts of Record under the Constitution.
Contempt of Court Act, 1971
The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 elaborates the constitutional provision and classifies contempt into two types:
(a) Civil Contempt — [Section 2(b)]
- “Wilful disobedience of any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other process of a court, or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court.”
- Example: Disobeying a court’s injunction order or violating a stay order.
(b) Criminal Contempt — [Section 2(c)]
- The publication (by words, spoken or written, or by any visible means) or any act which:
- Scandalises or lowers the authority of any court, or
- Prejudices or interferes with the due course of any judicial proceeding, or
- Interferes or tends to interfere with the administration of justice.
- Example:
- Using derogatory remarks against judges (e.g., M.V. Jayarajan v. High Court of Kerala, 2015).
- Making public statements likely to influence ongoing cases.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Procedure for Initiating Contempt
- Can be suo motu by the Supreme Court or High Court, or
- On a motion made by any person with the consent of:
- Attorney General of India (for SC), or
- Advocate General (for HC).
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. 2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves. 3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. 4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 3 only |
2. With reference to the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC), consider the following statements:
1. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Cooperation.
2. It provides financial assistance to cooperatives and loans and grants to State Governments.
3. It can finance projects related to both agriculture and non-agricultural sectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) – “Strengthening India’s Cooperative Ecosystem”
National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC):
- Established: In 1963 under the National Cooperative Development Corporation Act, 1962.
- Type: A statutory corporation under the Ministry of Cooperation (earlier under Agriculture & Farmers Welfare). Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Headquarters: New Delhi.
- Objective: To plan, promote, and finance programmes for the production, processing, marketing, storage, export, and import of agricultural produce and other notified commodities through cooperatives. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Functions:
- Provides financial assistance to cooperatives for projects in sectors like agriculture, livestock, rural industries, and services.
- Extends loans and grants to State Governments and directly to national/state-level cooperative societies. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Promotes integrated cooperative development projects (ICDPs) at the district level.
- Funding: Receives funds from the Government of India, borrowings, and repayments from cooperatives.
- Recent focus: Expanding support to dairy, fisheries, food processing, FPOs, and digital cooperatives under the “Sahakar 22” and “Sahakar Pragya” initiatives.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2023) Q. With reference to the “Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS)” in India, consider the following statements: 1. They are regulated by both the Reserve Bank of India and NABARD. 2. They are entities under the Companies Act, 2013. 3. They form the lowest tier of the three-tier cooperative credit structure in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2186643
3. With reference to Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI), consider the following statements:
1. FPIs can invest in Indian securities such as shares, debentures, and government bonds.
2. FPI investors are allowed to hold more than 10% of the paid-up capital in an Indian company.
3. FPI is regulated under SEBI (Foreign Portfolio Investors) Regulations, 2019.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: ‘Highest’ FPI sell-off signals waning confidence in India
Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI):
- FPI refers to investment by foreign investors in financial assets of another country, such as shares, bonds, mutual funds, and derivatives, without control or management rights. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Nature:
- Considered short-term and volatile capital flow.
- Made through foreign institutional investors (FIIs), qualified foreign investors (QFIs), or foreign institutional entities.
- Regulator: SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) regulates FPIs under the SEBI (Foreign Portfolio Investors) Regulations, 2019. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Difference from FDI:
- FDI implies a long-term investment with ownership and control (≥10% equity).
- FPI implies passive investment (<10% equity). Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- Impact on Economy:
- Increases liquidity in capital markets.
- Sensitive to interest rate differentials, exchange rate stability, and global risk sentiment.
- Can lead to capital flight and currency depreciation during global shocks.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2020) Q. With reference to the “Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI)” in India, consider the following statements: 1. It is a component of India’s capital account. 2. It is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
4. With reference to Bitcoin, consider the following statements:
1. Bitcoin is a centralised digital currency that operates with a central authority using blockchain
technology for secure peer-to-peer transactions.
2. In India, it is not a legal tender, but not explicitly banned.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Bitcoin shaken by long-term holders dumping $45 billion
Bitcoin:
- Bitcoin is a decentralised digital currency that operates without a central authority or intermediary, using blockchain technology for secure peer-to-peer transactions.
- Origin: Introduced in 2009 by an unknown person/group under the pseudonym Satoshi Nakamoto.
- Technology:
- Based on Blockchain, a distributed ledger that records all transactions transparently.
- Uses cryptography for security and verification.
- Control and Supply:
- Not issued or controlled by any central bank or government.
- Total supply is capped at 21 million bitcoins, ensuring scarcity.
- Mining: New bitcoins are generated through mining, which involves solving complex mathematical problems using computing power.
- In India:
- Not a legal tender, but not explicitly banned.
- Regulated indirectly under laws like Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) for crypto exchanges.
- The government imposes 30% tax on virtual digital asset gains and 1% TDS on transactions (Union Budget 2022–23).
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2020) Q. With reference to the “Virtual Currencies”, consider the following statements: 1. They are issued by the central banks. 2. They can be used as a medium of exchange. 3. They can be used for making payments and remittances. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
5. Operation Chhatru, recently seen in the news, is related to
(a) A joint Indo-Nepal disaster-relief exercise
(b) An anti-terror operation in Jammu & Kashmir
(c) A counter-narcotics drive along the India-Myanmar border
(d) A naval operation to protect Indian fishermen in the Arabian Sea
Answer: (b) An anti-terror operation in Jammu & Kashmir
Explanation:
In NEWS: Op Chhatru underway in J&K’s Kishtwar, 3 terrorists suspected to be hiding
Operation Chhatru:
- Operation Chhatru is an anti-terror operation launched in the Chhatru area of Kishtwar district in the Chenab Valley region of Jammu & Kashmir. Hence option (b) is correct.
- It is being conducted jointly by the Indian Army’s White Knight Corps and the J&K Police based on specific intelligence inputs about terrorist presence in the region.
- During the operation, terrorists affiliated with Pakistan-based groups were neutralised and a significant cache of war-like stores (including AK and M4 rifles) was recovered
- The operation underscores India’s internal security dynamics, counter-terrorism measures and cross-border infiltration challenges.
6. Which of the following countries is widely regarded as being closest to becoming the world’s first cashless society?
(a) Japan
(b) Switzerland
(c) Singapore
(d) Sweden
Answer: (d) Sweden
Explanation:
In NEWS: Which country has become the world’s first ‘Cashless Society’?
World’s First ‘Cashless Society’:
- Sweden is often regarded as the world’s first cashless society, where digital payments dominate over cash transactions. Hence option (d) is correct.
- Less than 5% of total transactions in Sweden are made using cash.
- Major digital payment systems: Swish, BankID, and mobile banking apps integrated across retailers and public services.
- Many banks in Sweden no longer handle cash, and even small shops, buses, and churches accept only digital payments.
- The Riksbank (Sweden’s central bank) is developing the e-Krona, a Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC), to maintain financial inclusion and state control in a nearly cashless economy.
- Challenges include data privacy, cybersecurity, and ensuring access for the elderly and rural populations.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2018) Q. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’? (a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments. (b) Digital currency will completely replace physical currency in India. (c) FDI inflows will substantially increase. (d) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will be discontinued. |
7. What is/are the benefit(s) to India of establishing ‘Special Economic Zones’?
1. They help in promotion of exports of goods and services.
2. They help in creation of employment opportunities.
3. They help in attracting investment from foreign sources.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: Govt panel working on new SEZ norms for exporters to access domestic market
Special Economic Zone (SEZ):
- SEZs are geographically designated areas where economic laws are more liberal than in the rest of the country to promote exports, FDI, and industrial growth.
- Legal Basis: Governed by the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 and SEZ Rules, 2006.
- Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- Objectives:
- Promote exports of goods and services.
- Attract foreign and domestic investment.
- Generate employment and infrastructure development.
Hence all the statements are correct.
- Incentives:
- Tax holidays and duty-free imports.
- Exemption from customs/excise duties.
- Simplified labour and land-use norms.
- Single-window clearance.
- Types of SEZs:
- Free Trade and Warehousing Zones (FTWZ)
- IT/ITeS SEZs
- Multi-product SEZs
- Sector-specific SEZs
- Recent Developments:
- Government plans to replace SEZ Act, 2005 with the Development of Enterprise and Service Hubs (DESH) Bill, to make zones compliant with WTO rules and boost domestic integration.
- SEZ exports contribute over 40% of India’s total merchandise exports (as per recent data).
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2016) Q. With reference to an initiative called “The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)” which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World Economic Forum. 2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity. 3. It presents an approach that can help decision-makers recognize, demonstrate and capture the value of ecosystems and biodiversity. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
8. Tel Aviv recently seen in the news is located in
(a) Yemen
(b) Israel
(c) Ukraine
(d) Egypt
Answer: (b) Israel
Explanation:
In NEWS: 17th India-Israel Joint Working Group meeting on defence cooperation held in Tel Aviv
India–Israel Joint Working Group (JWG) on Defence Cooperation:
- The 17th meeting of the India–Israel JWG on Defence Cooperation was held in Tel Aviv, Israel, on November 4, 2025. Hence option (b) is correct.
- A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on Defence Cooperation was signed to:
- Provide a unified vision and policy direction for bilateral defence ties.
- Enable sharing of advanced technology.
- Promote co-development and co-production of defence systems.
- Areas of cooperation identified include:
- Strategic dialogues & training,
- Defence industrial cooperation,
- Science & Technology, R&D,
- Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Cybersecurity.
- The meeting also covered counter-terrorism cooperation and operational capability enhancement.
- The India – Israel defence relationship is long-standing, built on mutual trust and shared security interests.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2186384
9. With reference to Vande Mataram, consider the following statements:
1. It was originally written in Hindi and appeared in the novel Anandamath.
2. Only its first two stanzas have been given the status of the National Song of India.
3. It was first sung in 1947 during India’s Independence celebrations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi to inaugurate the year-long Commemoration of 150 Years of the National Song “Vande Mataram” on 7th November 2025
150 Years of “Vande Mataram”:
- Year: 2025 marks 150 years since “Vande Mataram” was composed (1875) by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.
- Origin: Written in Sanskrit and Bengali, it first appeared in Bankim’s novel Anandamath (published in 1882). Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Meaning: “Vande Mataram” translates to “I bow to thee, Mother”—a salutation to the motherland.
- Cultural Significance: Became a symbol of national unity and freedom during India’s independence movement. Inspired freedom fighters during Partition of Bengal (1905) and other movements.
- Official Recognition:
- The first two stanzas were adopted as the National Song of India in January 1950. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Distinguished from the National Anthem (Jana Gana Mana) but holds equal national reverence.
- Composer & Music: Music composed by Rabindranath Tagore, first sung at the Indian National Congress session (1896). Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- Themes: Depicts India as a divine mother—rich in natural beauty, fertility, and strength—personified through Durga imagery.
- Commemoration: 2025 celebrations emphasize its legacy of patriotism, linguistic harmony, and cultural revival.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2020) Q. With reference to the book “Desher Katha” written by Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar during the freedom struggle, consider the following statements: 1. It warned against the Colonial State’s hypnotic conquest of the mind. 2. It inspired the performance of swadeshi street plays and folk songs. 3. The use of ‘desh’ by Deuskar was in the specific context of the region of Bengal. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2186757
10. If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects disturbed by their movement through grasses. Which of the following is/are such bird/birds?
1. Painted Stork
2. Common Myna
3. Black-necked Crane
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
- Common Myna often follows grazing cattle in fields to catch insects stirred up by their movement.
- Painted Stork is a wading bird usually found in wetlands and shallow waters, not grasslands.
- Black-necked Crane inhabits high-altitude wetlands and marshes in the Himalayas (e.g., Ladakh, Arunachal Pradesh), not typical countryside plains with cattle.
Hence, only Common Myna exhibits this behavior.