PRELIMS CURRENT AFFAIRS – 01/08/24

1.With reference to the Landslide Atlas of India, which of the following statements is/ are correct?

1. It is prepared by the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) of ISRO.
2. This database covers landslide vulnerable regions in the entire Himalayan and Western Ghats.
3. Wayanad district in Kerala tops the vulnerability ranking 2023 for landslide.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only 
4. All are true

Answer : a) 1 and 2 only

In News : Wayanad landslide disaster

Explanation : 

Landslide atlas of India:

• Landslide atlas of India is prepared by the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) of ISRO, Hyderabad. This database covers landslide vulnerable regions in 17 states and 02 UTs of India in the  Himalayas and Western Ghats. Hence statements 1 & 2 are correct. 
• The database was used to rank 147 districts in 17 states and 02 UTs of India for their exposure to landslides in terms of key socio-economic parameters. 
• The database includes three types of landslide inventory – seasonal, event-based and route-wise for the 1998-2022 period. 
• Seasonal inventory contains a pan-India landslide database corresponding to the 2014 and 2017 rainy season in India. 
• Event-based inventory contains details of some of the major triggering events such as Kedarnath and Kerala disasters, and Sikkim earthquake as well as a few large valley blocking landslides.
• Routewise inventory contains details of landslides along selected routes of tourist and pilgrimage importance. 
• Satellite data of high to very high resolution such as IRS-1D PAN+LISS-III, Resourcesat-1, 2 and 2A LISS-IV Mx, Cartosat-1 and 2S, data from International satellites (Sentinel-1&2, Pleiades and WorldView) and Aerial images were used in the mapping of landslides.
• Rudraprayag in Uttarakhand was ranked first in the ranking. Wayanad ranks 13^th. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. 

Source : https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/wayanad-was-among-kerala-districts-that-ranked-high-on-isro-landslide-atlas/article68467556.ece

https://www.isro.gov.in/media_isro/pdf/LandslideAtlas_2023.pdf

2.With reference to the committee of privileges to safeguard the freedom, authority and the dignity of Parliament, consider the following statements :

1. This Committee consists of 15 members nominated by the Speaker.
2. Its function is to examine every question involving breach of privilege of the House or of the members of any Committee. 
3. The breach of privilege proceedings initiated against Members of the Legislative Assembly (MLAs) in the previous assembly could continue even after the dissolution of the Assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. All the above

Answer : d) All the above

In News : Breach of privilege proceedings against MLAs can continue even after dissolution of Assembly: Madras HC On Gutka issue

Explanation : 

Committee of privileges: 

• Each House of Parliament and its Committees collectively and members of each House individually enjoy certain rights, privileges and immunities without which they cannot perform their functions efficiently and effectively. 
• The object of parliamentary privilege is to safeguard the freedom, the authority and the dignity of Parliament. They are enjoyed by individual members, because the House cannot perform its functions without unimpeded use of the services of its members and by each House collectively for the protection of its members and the vindication of its own authority and dignity. 
• This Committee consists of 15 members nominated by the Speaker. Its function is to examine every question involving breach of privilege of the House or of the members of any Committee thereof referred to it by the House or by the Speaker. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct. 
• It determines with reference to the facts of each case whether a breach of privilege is involved and makes suitable recommendations in its report. 
• It also states the procedure to be followed by the House in giving effect to the recommendations made by it. When a question of privilege is referred to the Committee by the House, the report of the Committee is presented to the House by the Chairman or, in his absence, by any member of the Committee. 
• The Speaker may refer to the Committee any petition regarding disqualification of a member on ground of defection for making a preliminary inquiry and submitting a report to him. The procedure to be followed by the Committee in these cases is so far as may be same as applicable to questions of breach of privilege.

Recent Judgment: The Madras High Court recently held that the breach of privilege proceedings initiated against Members of the Legislative Assembly (MLAs) could continue even after the dissolution of the Assembly to which they had been elected and such incomplete proceedings could not be considered to have lapsed after the election of the next Assembly.Hence statement 3 is correct

Constitutional Provisions: According to the Constitution of India, Articles 105 and 122 outline the privileges of Parliament, while Articles 194 and 212 pertain to the privileges of state governments.

• Article 105: There shall be freedom of speech in Parliament. No member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee thereof.
• Article 122: The validity of any proceedings in Parliament shall not be called in question in court on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure.
• Article 194: There shall be freedom of speech in the State Legislature. No member of the State Legislature shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in the State Legislature or any committee thereof.
• Article 212: The validity of any proceedings in the State Legislature shall not be called in question in court on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/breach-of-privilege-proceedings-against-mlas-can-continue-even-after-dissolution-of-assembly-madras-high-court/article68467532.ece

3.Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : 

Pathogen access and benefit sharing mechanism (P-ABS) is an international treaty to fortify global pandemic preparedness.

Statement-II : 

The WHO Pandemic Treaty aims to fortify global pandemic preparedness discussed in the 77th world health assembly in Geneva.

Which one of the above is correct in respect of the above statements ?

1. Both statement I and II are correct and statement-II  explains statement-I
2. Both statement I and II are correct and statement-II  does not explains statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct,    but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer : a) Both statement I and II are correct and statement-II  explains statement-I

In News : The global struggle for a pandemic treaty 

Explanation : 

WHO Pandemic Treaty:

• World Health Organization (“WHO”) aim to finalize negotiations on a new international treaty on pandemic prevention, preparedness and response (“Pandemic Accord”).  
• At the center of the negotiations is the contentious issue of Pathogen Access and Benefit-Sharing (“P-ABS”).
• Pathogen access and benefit sharing mechanism (P-ABS) is an international treaty to fortify global pandemic preparedness.
• It is seen as the heart of the world of the 77^th world health assembly agreement in Geneva 2024. 
• The 77th World Health Assembly adopts amendments to International Health Regulations 2005 based on 300 proposals by member states.
• Amendments aim at improving countries’ ability to prepare for and respond to Public Health Emergencies of International Concern and Pandemic Emergencies
• They include provisions for facilitating equitable access to relevant health products during health emergencies, as well as mobilizing financial resources to support developing countries in building, strengthening, and maintaining the core capacities required under the IHR.
• This is a step towards equity and the creation of an umbrella of solidarity that will help protect the world from future pandemic threats: Shri Apurva Chandra, Secretary, Union Health Ministry & Chair of Committee A, WHA.
• India played a constructive role in the crafting of the Instrument, which seeks to operationalize equity, necessary for an equitable response by developing countries to Public Health Emerge 

ABS:

• “Access” refers to the rapid, systematic and timely sharing of biological materials with epidemic and pandemic potential, as well as related information.  
• This kind of sharing is critical during an outbreak of an emerging disease: development of a diagnostic test, a vaccine, or a therapeutic, typically requires access to information and/or physical samples on the pathogen that it targets. 

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/the-global-struggle-for-a-pandemic-treaty/article68469433.ece#:~:text=After%20great%20fanfare%20and%20over,the%20same%2C%20and%20reduce%20unconscionable

4. Which of the following is correct with respect to the Small modular reactor (SMR)?

1. They have a power capacity of up to 10-300 MW(e) per unit
2. They use low enriched plutonium as fuel.
3. SMRs could be paired with and increase the efficiency of renewable sources in a hybrid energy system.

Select from the options given below:

1. 1 and 2 only 
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. All are correct

Answer : b) 1 and 3 only

In News : Problem power: On small modular reactor plan 

Explanation : 

Small modular reactors (SMRs) are advanced nuclear reactors that have a power capacity of up to 300 MW(e) per unit, which is about one-third of the generating capacity of traditional nuclear power reactors. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 

SMRs, which can produce a large amount of low-carbon electricity, are:

• Small – physically a fraction of the size of a conventional nuclear power reactor.
• Modular – making it possible for systems and components to be factory-assembled and transported as a unit to a location for installation.
• Reactors – harnessing nuclear fission to generate heat to produce energy.
• Many of the benefits of SMRs are inherently linked to the nature of their design – small and modular. 
• Given their smaller footprint, SMRs can be sited on locations not suitable for larger nuclear power plants. Prefabricated units of SMRs can be manufactured and then shipped and installed on site, making them more affordable to build than large power reactors, which are often custom designed for a particular location, sometimes leading to construction delays. 
• SMR uses low enriched Uranium as the initial fuel. Hence statement 2  is incorrect. 
• SMRs offer savings in cost and construction time, and they can be deployed incrementally to match increasing energy demand.
• One of the challenges to accelerating access to energy is infrastructure – limited grid coverage in rural areas – and the costs of grid connection for rural electrification. 
• SMRs could be paired with and increase the efficiency of renewable sources in a hybrid energy system. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
• A single power plant should represent no more than 10 per cent of the total installed grid capacity. In areas lacking sufficient lines of transmission and grid capacity, SMRs can be installed into an existing grid or remotely off-grid, as a function of its smaller electrical output, providing low-carbon power for industry and the population. This is particularly relevant for microreactors, which are a subset of SMRs designed to generate electrical power typically up to 10 MW(e). 
• In comparison to existing reactors, proposed SMR designs are generally simpler, and the safety concept for SMRs often relies more on passive systems and inherent safety characteristics of the reactor, such as low power and operating pressure. 
• SMRs have reduced fuel requirements. Power plants based on SMRs may require less frequent refuelling, every 3 to 7 years, in comparison to between 1 and 2 years for conventional plants. Some SMRs are designed to operate for up to 30 years without refuelling.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-are-bharat-small-reactors-and-small-modular-reactors/article68437448.ece#:~:text=Small%20modular%20reactors%20(SMRs)%20are,parts%20and%20more%20safety%20features.

5.With reference to Index of core industries(ICI) consider the following statements:

1. The ICI measures the combined and individual performance of production of eight core industries.
2. The Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 percent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above

Answer : c) Both 1 and 2

In News : Up 4%, core sectors’ growth at 20-month low in June

Explanation : 

• The combined Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) increased by 4.0per cent (provisional) in June, 2024 as compared to the Index in June, 2023. 
• The production of Coal, Electricity, Natural Gas, Steel, Fertilizer sand Cement recorded positive growth in June 2024. The details of annual indices, monthly indices and growth rates are provided at Annex I and Annex II.
• The ICI measures the combined and individual performance of production of eight core industries viz. Cement, Coal, Crude Oil, Electricity, Fertilisers, Natural Gas, Refinery Products and Steel. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• The Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 percent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• The final growth rate of Index of Eight Core Industries for March2024 stands at 6.3per cent. 
• The cumulative growth rate of ICI during April to June, 2024-25 was 5.7 percent (provisional) as compared to the corresponding period of last year.

Source : https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2039668#:~:text=The%20final%20growth%20rate%20of,corresponding%20period%20of%20last%20year.

6.Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak 2024 bill tabled in Parliament ?

1. The bill replaces aircraft act 1934.
2. This bill is aimed to empower the government to make rules for the investigation of any air accident or incident.
3. It empowers the central government to make rules and regulations regarding aircrafts.
4. It eases the process for pilots to secure their certificates from single authority.

Select from the options given below: 

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1,2 and 3 only
3. 2,3 and 4 only
4. All the above

Answer : d) All the above

In News : Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak Bill tabled in Lok Sabha

Explanation : 

• To further improve the ease of doing business in the aviation space, the government on Wednesday introduced a bill in the Lok Sabha to replace the 90-year-old Aircraft Act. 
• The Bhartiya Vayuyan Vidheyak Bill 2024 seeks to remove redundancies and replace the Aircraft Act, 1934 — which has been amended 21 times — at a time when India is one of the fastest-growing civil aviation markets in the world. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• The bill, introduced by Civil Aviation Minister K Rammohan Naidu, includes provisions to regulate the design and manufacturing of aircraft, supporting the Aatmanirbhar Bharat initiative for self-reliance.

• One of the key elements is that once the Act is implemented, then the issuance of Radio Telephone Operator (Restricted) Certificate and Licence will be issued by the aviation regulator DGCA which is under the civil aviation ministry, according to an official.
• Currently, these certificates, a requirement for completion of pilot training, are issued by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) after conducting a test.

• The Aircraft Act of 1934 was amended 21 times over the past 90 years and there was a need to address the ambiguities and confusion experienced by the stakeholders, remove redundancies, enable ease of doing business and provide for manufacture and maintenance in the aviation sector.
• Among others, the bill seeks to give the central government more powers to prohibit or regulate certain construction activities, issue directives, detain aircraft, and enact emergency orders when necessary.
• This bill is aimed to empower the government to make rules for the investigation of any air accident or incident. It empowers the central government to make rules and regulation regarding aircrafts. It eases the process for pilots to secure their certificates from single authority. Hence, statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct. 

Source : https://www.newsonair.gov.in/union-civil-aviation-minister-introduces-bharatiya-vayuyan-vidheyak-2024/#:~:text=The%20Bharatiya%20Vayuyan%20Vidheyak%202024,been%20made%20over%20the%20years.

7. With reference to National Mission on Monuments and Antiquities (NMMA) consider the following statements:

1. It was started in 2007. 
2. It was mandated to prepare two national registers on monuments and antiquities.
3. It was mandated to create two National databases on monuments and antiquities of the country which will be beneficial to the public including students, college, researchers, administrative personnel etc.
4. It was tasked with conducting training programmes and workshops on documentation of monuments and antiquities, all over the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1,2 and 3 only 
3. 2,3 and 4 only
4. All the above

Answer : d) All the above

Explanation : 

• The Government of India has established the National Mission on Monuments and Antiquities (NMMA) in 2007 to prepare two national registers on monuments and antiquities. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct. 
• NMMA is currently being implemented and its documented data is published at the NMMA website.
• The mandate of the NMMA is to create two National databases on monuments and antiquities of the country which will be beneficial to the public including students, college, researchers, administrative personnel etc. The NMMA is also conducting training programmes and workshops on documentation of monuments and antiquities, all over the country. Hence statements 3 and 4 are correct. 
• Government through Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has collaborated with foreign academic and research institutions, as well as laboratories to access the latest domain specific research findings and innovative techniques for restoration practices.  ASI has already collaborated with foreign institutes like University of Ca’ Foscari, Venice & ICR, Italy.

Source : https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2040119

8. Hodeidah port, often mentioned in the news, is located in which of the following seas?

1. Red sea
2. Mediterranean Sea
3. South china sea
4. Arabian Sea

Answer : a) Red Sea 

In News : Yemen’s Hodeidah port, an economic lifeline now threatened by Israel

Explanation : 

• In 2018, pro-government Yemeni forces advanced towards the port city of Hodeidah, the second most important city controlled by the Houthi rebels after the capital, Sanaa.
• Away from Yemen’s mountains, the Houthis were struggling to deal with Saudi-led coalition air strikes on the coastal plain south of Hodeidah and were falling back rapidly towards the city. 
• After four years of war, the government side saw an opportunity to severely weaken the Houthis and possibly knock them out of the war.
• Humanitarian organisations, backed by Western nations including the United States and United Kingdom, called for a ceasefire to avoid a potential famine, and one was eventually agreed. 
• The Houthis have sat in comfortable control of Hodeidah ever since, and the Yemeni government is weaker than ever. The rebel group is ever more confident that it has emerged victorious in the country’s war and is flexing its muscles beyond Yemen.

Source : https://www.aljazeera.com/news/2024/7/30/yemens-hodeidah-port-an-economic-lifeline-now-threatened-by-israel

9. Consider the following statements:

1. It is inspired by the Red Flag exercise hosted by the US.

2. The United States of America will showcase the A-400M aircraft in the exercise. 

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct with respect to the Tarang Shakti Exercise of Indian Air Force?

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

News: India will host its first multinational air exercise called Tarang Shakti-2024 in August 2024, with the participation of 10 countries and some others as observers.

Explanation: 

Exercise Tarang Shakti:

• It is inspired by the Red Flag exercise hosted by the US. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• The exercise will be held in 2 phases, with the first phase in southern India and the second in the western sector.
• Australia, France, Germany, Japan, Spain, the United Arab Emirates, the United Kingdom, and the United States are expected to participate.
• Germany will showcase the A-400M aircraft, which will be displayed for the Indian Air Force (IAF) as it is being considered as a potential option for the current open tender seeking medium transport aircraft. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. 
• Recently, IAF participated in the 2nd edition of air exercise Red Flag 2024 from 4th to 14th June 2024 in Alaska.
• Indian Rafales participated in joint exercises with Singaporean and American aircraft. The missions involved beyond-visual range combat exercises in offensive counter-air and air defence roles as part of large force engagements.

10. Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

a) Only one

b) Only two

c) All three

d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

Hezbollah, the Shiite Islamic militant group based in Lebanon led since 1992 by its Secretary-General Hassan Nasrallah. Hezbollah’s paramilitary wing is the Jihad Council, and its political wing is the Loyalty to the Resistance Bloc party in the Lebanese Parliament. Since 1990, Hezbollah has participated in Lebanese politics, in a process which is described as the Lebanonisation of Hezbollah, and it later participated in the government of Lebanon and joined political alliances. Hence, Pair 1 is incorrect.

Hamas, an acronym of its official name, Harakat al-Muqawama al-Islamiya  is Palestinian Sunni Islamist political and military movement governing parts of the Israeli-occupied Gaza Strip since 2007. Historically, Hamas envisioned a Palestinian state on all of the territory that belonged to the British Mandate for Palestine (that is, from the Jordan River to the Mediterranean Sea). Hence, Pair 2 is incorrect.

The Houthi movement, officially known as Ansar Allah, is a Shia Islamist political and military organization that emerged from Yemen in the 1990s. It is predominantly made up of Zaidi Shias, with their namesake leadership being drawn largely from the Houthi tribe. The organization took part in the Yemeni Revolution of 2011 by participating in street protests and coordinating with other Yemeni opposition groups. They joined Yemen’s National Dialogue Conference but later rejected the 2011 reconciliation deal.[97][98] In late 2014, the Houthis repaired their relationship with Saleh, and with his help they took control of the capital city. Following the outbreak of the 2023 Israel–Hamas war, the Houthis began to fire missiles at Israel and to attack ships off Yemen’s coast in the Red Sea, which they say is in solidarity with the Palestinians and aiming to facilitate entry of humanitarian aid into the Gaza Strip. Hence, Pair 3 is incorrect.