PRELIMS CURRENT AFFAIRS-12/07/24

01.With reference to Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited, Consider the following statements:

Statement -I:It is corporate entity of Visakhapatnam Steel Plant is aMaharatna Public sector Enterprise  under the Ministry of Steel

Statement -II: It is the first shore based Integrated Steel Plant in the country also the first PSE to be certified ISO 50001:2011 – Energy Management Systems 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement – I and Statement – II are correct and Statement – II is the correct explanation for Statement – I
2. Both Statement – I and Statement – II are correct and Statement – II is not the correct explanation for Statement – I
3. Statement – I is correct but Statement – II is incorrect
4. Statement – I is incorrect but Statement – II is correct

Answer:  (d)Statement – I is incorrect but Statement – II is correct

In News:Union Minister HD Kumaraswamy and MOS Bhupathiraju Srinivasa Varma Visit Visakhapatnam Steel Plant

Explanation:

• Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited, the corporate entity of Visakhapatnam Steel Plant is a Navaratna PSE under the Ministry of Steel.Hence statement 1 is correct.
•  Visakhapatnam Steel Plant fondly called Vizag steel. 
• It is the first shore based Integrated Steel Plant in the country and is known for its quality products delighting the customers. It is a market leader in long products and it caters to the needs of diverse Industrial sectors. 
• It is the first Steel plant to be certified ISO 9001:2008 (presently2015), ISO 14001:2004 (presently2015), OHSAS 18001:2007 and ISO/IEC 27001:2013 Standards.
•  It is also the first PSE to be certified ISO 50001:2011 – Energy Management Systems and has acquired CMMI Level 3 Certification for s/w development.Hence statement 2 is correct.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2032457

02. With reference to Open Acreage Licensing Policy,consider the following statements:

1. It was introduced as part of the new fiscal regime in the exploration sector called  Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy.
2. Under this policy a bidder intending to explore hydrocarbons like oil and gas, coal bed methane, gas hydrate may apply to the Government seeking exploration of any new bloc.
3. It  gives an option to a company looking to explore hydrocarbons to select the exploration blocks on its own, without waiting for the formal bid round from the Government.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Answer:  (c)All three

In News:E&P sector offers investment opportunities worth 100 billion USD by 2030: Petroleum Minister Hardeep S Puri

Explanation:

• The Exploration and Production (E&P) sector offers investment opportunities worth 100 billion USD by 2030.
• Despite our substantial progress,Only 10% of our sedimentary basin area is under exploration today. 
• After the award of blocks under the forthcoming Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP) Rounds, it will increase to 16% by end-2024.
• Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP) gives an option to a company looking to explore hydrocarbons to select the exploration blocks on its own, without waiting for the formal bid round from the Government.Hence statement 3 is correct. 
• Under Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP), a bidder intending to explore hydrocarbons like oil and gas, coal bed methane, gas hydrate etc., may apply to the Government seeking exploration of any new block (not already covered by exploration).Hence statement 2  is correct.  
• The Government will examine the Expression of Interest and justification. If it is suitable for award, Govt. will call for competitive bids after obtaining necessary environmental and other clearances. 
• OALP was introduced vide a Cabinet decision of the Government dated 10.03.2016, as part of the new fiscal regime in exploration sector called HELP or Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy, so as to enable a faster survey and coverage of the available geographical area which has potential for oil and gas discovery.Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• India has a sedimentary area of 3.14 million sq. km. comprising 26 basins. At the end of 2012-13, about 48% of this sedimentary area remains unapprised. 

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2032477

03. Consider the following statements:

1. India was the first country in the world to have launched a National Programme for Family Planning in 1952.
2. The National Population Policy (NPP) in 2000 brought a holistic and a target free approach which helped in the reduction of fertility.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (c)Both 1 and 2

In News:World Population Day 2024

Explanation:

• On the occasion of World Population Day, Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare, Shri Jagat Prakash Nadda virtually held a meeting with State/UTs in the presence of Union Minister of State for Health and Family Welfare, Smt. Anupriya Patel, here today.
•  The theme of the event was: “Healthy timing & spacing of pregnancies for the wellbeing of mother and child.
• Mission Parivar Vikas” (MPV), one of the successful schemes of the National Family Planning Programme, which was initially launched for 146 High Priority Districts (HPDs) in seven high-focus states, and later expanded to cover all districts in these states and six northeastern states.
• India was the first country in the world to have launched a National Programme for Family Planning in 1952.Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• With its historic initiation in 1952, the Family Planning Programme has undergone transformation in terms of policy and actual programme implementation. 
• There occurred a gradual shift from clinical approach to the reproductive child health approach and further, the National Population Policy (NPP) in 2000 brought a holistic and a target free approach which helped in the reduction of fertility.Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Over the years, the programme has been expanded to reach every nook and corner of the country and has penetrated the Primary Health Centres and Sub Centres in rural areas, Urban Family Welfare Centers and Post-partum Centers in the urban areas. 
• Technological advances, improved quality and coverage for healthcare have resulted in a rapid fall in the Crude Birth Rate (CBR), Total Fertility Rate (TFR) and growth rate (2011 Census showed the steepest decline in the decadal growth rate.)

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2032409

04. Consider the following 

1. Enhancement of Production and Productivity 
2. Infrastructure and Post-Harvest Management 
3. Fisheries Management and Regulatory Framework

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Answer:  (c)All three

In News:Department of Fisheries to organise Fisheries Summer Meet 2024 on 12th July 2024 at Madurai, Tamil Nadu

Explanation:

• India is blessed with rich and diverse fisheries resources and a variety of fish species are found that enrich our biodiversity. Fisheries and aquaculture is a promising sector that provides livelihood and employment opportunities to about 3 crore fishers and fish farmers at the primary level and many more along the fisheries’ value chain.
•  India is also the 2nd largest fish producing country with around 8% share in global fish production. Globally, India also stands 2nd in aquaculture production, is one of the top shrimp producing and exporting nations and 3rd largest capture fisheries producer.
• The aforesaid achievements are a cumulative effect of several transformational initiatives for holistic development of fisheries and aquaculture sector. Recognizing the immense potential of the fisheries and aquaculture sector and for focused and holistic development, Govt of India (GoI) approved the highest ever investments in fisheries and aquaculture sector. 
• The total investment of Rs 38,572 crore investment includes financial assistance for impactful projects and initiatives through Department of Fisheries (DoF), GoI schemes namely the Blue Revolution Scheme (Rs. 5,000 crore), Fisheries and Aquaculture Infrastructure Development Fund (FIDF, Rs. 7,522 crore), Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY, Rs. 20,050 crore) and a sub-scheme under PMMSY – Pradhan Mantri Matsya Samridhi Sah Yojana (PM-MKSSY, Rs 6000 crore) approved in Feb 2024.
• The scheme “Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY)” was launched by the Department of Fisheries; Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying; to bring about ecologically healthy, economically viable, and socially inclusive development of the fisheries sector of India.
• The Sub-Components/Activities Covered Under The PMMSY Scheme
• Enhancement of Production and Productivity 
• Infrastructure and Post-Harvest Management 
• Fisheries Management and Regulatory Framework.Hence option(c) is correct.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2032338

05.With reference to Exercise Pitch Black 2024, Consider the following statements:

1. It is a biennial, multi- national exercise hosted by the Royal France Air France.
2. It is slated to be the largest in the 43 year long history of Ex Pitch Black, which includes participation by 20 countries, with over 140 aircraft and 4400 military personnel of various air forces.
3. The exercise will be focusing on Large Force Employment warfare to facilitate experience enhancement with the IAF Su-30 MKI operating alongside the F-35, F-22, F-18, F-15, Gripen and Typhoon fighter aircraft.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Answer: (d)2 and 3 only

In News:INDIAN AIR FORCE EX PITCH BLACK 2024 AT DARWIN, AUSTRALIA

Explanation:

• An Indian Air Force (IAF) contingent landed at the Royal Australian Air Force (RAAF) Base Darwin, Australia for participating in Exercise Pitch Black 2024. 
• The exercise is scheduled to be conducted from 12 July 24 to 02 August 24, and is a biennial, multi- national exercise hosted by the RAAF.Hence statement 1 is incorrect.  
• The name ‘Pitch Black’ was derived from the emphasis on night time flying over large un-populated areas. 
• This edition is slated to be the largest in the 43 year long history of Ex Pitch Black, which includes participation by 20 countries, with over 140 aircraft and 4400 military personnel of various air forces.Hence statement 2 is correct.  
• The exercise will be focusing on Large Force Employment warfare aimed at strengthening international cooperation and shall facilitate experience enhancement with the IAF Su-30 MKI operating alongside the F-35, F-22, F-18, F-15, Gripen and Typhoon fighter aircraft.Hence statement 3 is correct. 
• The IAF contingent comprises of over 150 highly skilled Air Warriors including pilots, engineers, technicians, controllers and other subject matter experts, who will be operating the formidable Su-30 MKI multirole fighters, with the C -17 Globemaster and the IL-78 Air-to-Air Refuelling aircraft in combat enabling roles.
• The exercise would provide IAF with an opportunity towards force integration with participating nations and mutual exchange of best practices.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2032522

06.With reference to The Technology Development Fund,consider the following statements:

1. It is a program of Ministry of Defence executed by Department of Science and Technology under “Make-in-India” initiative
2. The Government has approved TDF Scheme to encourage participation of public/private industries especially MSMEs and start-ups to design and develop various defence technologies indigenously.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (b)2 only

In News:DRDO sanctions seven new projects to the private sector under Technology Development Fund scheme

Explanation:

• Providing impetus to Aatmanirbharta, Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) has awarded seven new projects to industries under the Technology Development Fund scheme for various requirements of the Armed Forces and aerospace & defence sectors. 
• These project sanctions are a testimony to the continuing endeavour of DRDO in nurturing Industries, especially MSMEs & start-ups, in defence and aerospace domains.
• The indigenous development of these technologies will strengthen the military industrial ecosystem.
• Technology Development Fund Scheme is a program of the Ministry of Defence (MoD) executed by DRDO under “Make-in-India” initiative.Hence statement 1 is incorrect.  
• The Government has approved TDF Scheme to encourage participation of public/private industries especially MSMEs and start-ups to design and develop various defence technologies indigenously.Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• A Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) of TDF scheme has been formulated and approved by Competent Authority in 2016. The SOP describes the evaluation and assessment criteria.
• A total of 41 MSMEs and 20 start-ups have been supported under the TDF Scheme. None of these belongs to Rajasthan. However, a large industry of Rajasthan has been supported under the scheme.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2032334

07. Consider the following statements:

1. Asteroids less than 1 metre in diameter are called Meteoroids.
2. Meteor is the streak of light produced when an Asteroid encounters friction in Earth ‘s atmosphere.
3. Meteorite is an unburnt fragment of asteroid that falls to earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1,2,3 

Answer:  (d)1,2,3 

In News:Why ISRO wants to venture into planetary defence

Explanation:

• Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) Chairman S Somanath said last week that “we should be able to go and meet” the asteroid Apophis when it passes by Earth at a distance of 32,000 km in 2029. 
• When Apophis was discovered in 2004, scientists thought there was a 2.7% chance of a collision with Earth — the highest probability of any large asteroid hitting Earth in the recent past. Initial observations showed that if not in 2029, Apophis could hit Earth in 2036 or 2068.
• Given the asteroid’s size — it measures about 450 m at its widest — a collision with Earth could cause large-scale damage. 
• Some scientists compared the potential impact to the event that wiped out dinosaurs and most other extant life some 66 million years ago.
• Subsequent observations showed these initial fears to have been unfounded — the Earth did not face any risk from Apophis in 2029, 2036, or 2068.
•  The asteroid will come the closest to Earth in 2029, when it flies by at a distance of 32,000 km. 
• This is close enough to be visible to the naked eye, and at a distance at which some communication satellites operate.

Hence option(d) is correct.

Source:

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/why-isro-wants-to-venture-into-planetary-defence-9447875/

08.With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM), consider the following statements:

1. Under the Scheme, central government subsidy upto 30% or 50% of the total cost is given for the installation of standalone solar pumps and also for the solarization of existing grid-connected agricultural pumps.
2. Farmers can also install grid-connected solar power plants up to 5MW under the Scheme on their barren/fallow land and sell electrical to local DISCOM at a tariff determined by state regulator. 
3. This scheme is being implemented by the designated departments of the State Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1,2,3

Answer:  (c) 1 and 3 only

In News:

Explanation:

• To ensure the long-term sustainability of agriculture, the Union government has been promoting the application of micro-irrigation and solar energy in agriculture. Micro-irrigation saves water, improves nutrient-use efficiency, and enhances crop yields and resilience to climate change. Solar power, a renewable and clean energy source for groundwater extraction, reduces carbon footprint. It reduces the fiscal burden due to electricity subsidies and diesel imports.
• Most States provide free or heavily subsidised electricity for irrigation. Furthermore, the country imports more than 85 per cent of its total diesel requirement. 
• There is a strong complementarity between micro-irrigation and solar energy, which has not been harnessed. 
• Micro-irrigation scheme is implemented through the ‘Per Drop More Crop (PDMC)’ component of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare and solar energy use in agriculture is promoted through the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PMKUSUM) by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. 
• Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) Scheme for de-dieselisation of the farm sector and enhancing the income of farmers. 
• Under the Scheme, central government subsidy upto 30% or 50% of the total cost is given for the installation of standalone solar pumps and also for the solarization of existing grid-connected agricultural pumps.Hence statement 1 is correct. 
•  Further, farmers can also install grid-connected solar power plants up to 2MW under the Scheme on their barren/fallow land and sell electrical to local DISCOM at a tariff determined by state regulator.Hence statement 2 is incorrect.  
• This scheme is being implemented by the designated departments of the State Government.Hence statement 3 is correct. 

Source:

https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/solar-powered-irrigation/article68393999.ece

09. Consider the following statements:

1. The foundations of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization were officially laid down in 1949 with the signing of the North Atlantic Treaty, more popularly known as the Washington Treaty
2. NATO Allies are sovereign states that come together through NATO to discuss political and security issues and make collective decisions by consensus.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (d)Neither 1 nor 2

In News:NATO expresses concern over deepening Russia-China ties

Explanation:

• NATO has voiced profound concern over China’s deepening relationship with Russia and accused Beijing of becoming a “decisive enabler” of Russia’s war against Ukraine through its so-called “no limits” partnership with the country.
• Leaders of the 32-member North Atlantic Treaty Organisation said this in a statement following their meeting in Washington to celebrate the 75th anniversary of the North Atlantic Council.
• The foundations of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) were officially laid down on 4 April 1949 with the signing of the North Atlantic Treaty, more popularly known as the Washington Treaty.Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• At present, NATO has 32 member countries. These countries, called NATO Allies, are sovereign states that come together through NATO to discuss political and security issues and make collective decisions by consensus.Hence statement 2 is correct. 

Source:

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/nato-expresses-concern-over-deepening-russia-china-ties/article68392245.ece

10.Consider the following statements:(2020)

1. The value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade has consistently increased in the last decade.
2. “Textile and textile articles” constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh.
3. In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Ans:(b)2 only

Explanation:

• As per data from the Department of Commerce, Indo- Sri Lanka bilateral trade value for a decade (2007 to 2016) was 3.0, 3.4, 2.1, 3.8, 5.2, 4.5, 5.3, 7.0, 6.3, 4.8 (in billion USD). It reflects continuous fluctuation in the trend of trade value. There has been an overall increase but the same cannot be said as consistent rise in trade value. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Bangladesh has been a major textile trading partner for India, with a share of more than 5% in exports and over 7% in imports. While annual textile exports to Bangladesh averages $2,000 million, imports are worth $400 (Year: 2016-17).
• The major items of exports are fibre and yarn of cotton, man-made staple fibres and man-made filaments while major import items include apparel and clothing, fabric and other made up textile articles. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• According to the data, in 2016-17, Bangladesh is India’s largest trading partner in South Asia, followed by Nepal, Sri Lanka, Pakistan, Bhutan, Afghanistan and Maldives. The level of Indian exports also follows the same order. Hence statement 3 is not correct.