PRELIMS CURRENT AFFAIRS – 19/08/24

01.With reference to Malabar Tree Toad, Consider the following statements:

1. It is endemic to India’s Western Ghats.
2. It is the only arboreal species in India, having the unique capability to climb trees.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (d) Neither 1 nor 2

In News:Endemic Malabar Tree Toad populations may decline 68.7% due to climate change: Study

Explanation:

• Climate change may decrease the distribution range of the Malabar Tree Toad (MTT) by up to 68.7 per cent of the current estimated distribution in India’s protected areas (PAs), according to a study conducted by a concerned group of citizens and scientists. 
• The current estimated species distribution in PAs decreased its range to 68.7 per cent from 33.5 per cent between 2061 and 2080 in multiple models, if eight future climate change scenarios — including high emissions — were considered.
• But in case of low emissions scenarios, the distribution range of the species increased from 1.9 per cent to 111.3 per cent in PAs, according to the study published recently in the Nature journal. 
• MTT is endemic to India’s Western Ghats and the only species in the monotypic genus Pedostibes.Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Meaning, it is the only arboreal species in India, having the unique capability to climb trees and dwell unlike the majority of the toads in the region that are ground-dwelling.Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• It was first discovered in 1876 and the species was not sighted for more than 100 years. 
• It was later rediscovered in 1980 at Silent Valley National Park in Kerala. Scientists told Down To Earth (DTE) that very few sightings were noted until 2014, which led to studies that revealed the occupancy and extent of occurrence to be ‘nearly throughout the Western Ghats’.
• The current study noted that an adversely changing climate has endangered a wide array of species in the Western Ghats, a global biodiversity hotspot.
• The region hosts about 252 species of class amphibia, of which 17 are critically endangered while 40 are classified as ‘data deficient’.
• Globally, 40.7 percent of amphibians (8,011 species) are the most threatened taxa of vertebrates due to anthropogenic activities such as timber and plant harvesting, agriculture and infrastructure development. 
• Habitat fragmentation, pollution, disease and morphological deformities with climate change has led to the decline of amphibian populations in the past 40 years. 
• Amphibians are one of the most sensitive groups to the impacts of climate change due to their unique ecology, habitat needs and limited thermal tolerance, giving them narrow dispersal abilities.
• Grasslands, water bodies and built-up lands showed losses by 2.97 per cent, 2.6 per cent and 1.56 percent respectively, indicating the occurrence of the species in human-modified habitats. 

Source:

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/endemic-malabar-tree-toad-populations-may-decline-687-due-to-climate-change-study

02.With reference to National Animal Disease Control Programme,Consider the following statements:

Statement -I:The overall aim of this program is to control Foot and Mouth Disease in cattles by 2025 with vaccination and its eventual eradication by 2030

Statement -II:It  is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme where 60:40 funds are shared by central and state governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement – I and Statement – II are correct and Statement – II is the correct explanation for Statement – I
2. Both Statement – I and Statement – II are correct and Statement – II is not the correct explanation for Statement – I
3. Statement – I is correct but Statement – II is incorrect
4. Statement – I is incorrect but Statement – II is correct

Answer:  (c) Statement – I is correct but Statement – II is incorrect

In News:Decision of vaccination of pastoral sheep and goat against FMD was extended to all such population in the country: Shri Rajiv Ranjan Singh

Explanation:

• In the meeting, an Action Plan for making India FMD-free by 2030 was discussed. It was informed that all assessment was made to create zones in country particularly in the States of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttarakhand, Punjab, Haryana, Maharashtra & Gujarat on basis of sero-surveillance where vaccination is in advance stage can be taken up on priority for declaring as FMD-free zones. This will help in creating opportunities for export.
• Government of India launched flagship scheme of NADCP for vaccination against two major diseases viz. FMD & Brucellosis. Under the programme 6-monthly vaccination is carried out in cattle and buffaloes against FMD and is commenced in sheep and goats. 
• The vaccination against FMD in livestock in the country with 21 states had completed Round 4 and around 82 crore cumulative vaccination done till date. 
• Round 5 is already completed in the States of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
•  Under the flagship Programme, the target year to achieve eradication of FMD with vaccination from the country is 2030. 
• At this juncture, to safeguard and strengthen the benefits achieved with vaccination, coordinated efforts are required to be planned and implemented in areas like animal movement tracking, disease surveillance, biosecurity measures etc., along with the States concerned towards creating FMD free zones.
• The overall aim of the National Animal Disease Control Programme for FMD and Brucellosis (NADCP) is to control FMD by 2025 with vaccination and its eventual eradication by 2030.Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• This will result in increased domestic production and ultimately in increased exports of milk and livestock products. 
• Intensive Brucellosis Control programme in animals is envisaged for controlling Brucellosis which will result in effective management of the disease, in both animals and in humans.
• National Animal Disease Control Programme for FMD and Brucellosis (NADCP) is a Central Sector Scheme where 100% of funds shall be provided by the Central Government to the States / UTs.Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2046302

03. With reference to International Earth Sciences Olympiad,consider the following statements:

1. It was established in 2003 at the International Geoscience Education Organization Council Meeting in Calgary, Canada, is an annual competition for secondary school students from across the globe.
2. India has participated in the IESO since 2007 and hosted its 10th edition in Mysore
3. The Ministry of Earth Science  supports the INESO and IESO as part of the REACHOUT scheme under the PRITHVI Vigyan scheme.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Answer:  (c) All three

In News:India shines at the 17th International Earth Sciences Olympiad

Explanation:

• The Indian student team has bagged multiple prestigious medals at the 17th edition of the International Earth Sciences Olympiad (IESO) held in Beijing, China, from August 08-16, 2024.
•  The four-membered Indian team comprising students from Gujarat, Kerala, Chhattisgarh, and Rajasthan have won three gold and bronze each and two silver medals across three competition categories (Theory and Practical, Earth System Project, and International Team Filed Investigation).
• IESO, established in 2003 at the International Geoscience Education Organization Council Meeting in Calgary, Canada, is an annual competition for secondary school students from across the globe..Hence statement 1 is correct. 
•  It aims to generate awareness of earth sciences through teamwork, collaboration, exchanging ideas, and competition.
• India has participated in the IESO since 2007 and hosted its 10th edition in Mysore..Hence statement 2 is correct. 
•  This year, the 17th IESO witnessed teams from 35 countries, of which 32 made it to the finals. 
• Competitions were across four categories: Theory and Practical, Earth Science Project, International Team Field Investigation, and Data Mining.
• To encourage the participation of Indian students (of grades 9 to 12), the MoES supports the Indian National Earth Science Olympiad (INESO) held in various schools across India.
•  The INESO is a national-level prelude to the IESO, Facilitated annually by the Geological Society of India in collaboration with MoES and select educational bodies in the country. 
• The topics for assessment for students include geology, meteorology, oceanography, and environmental sciences. Top-performing participants from INESO get to represent India at the IESO, which also receives support from the MoES.
• The MoES supports the INESO and IESO as part of the REACHOUT scheme under the PRITHVI (PRITHvi Vigyan) scheme approved by the Union Cabinet in January 2024..Hence statement 3 is correct. 
•  The scheme’s goal is to improve understanding of Earth system sciences through research and development activities and to provide reliable services to the country.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2046223

04. Mackenzie river sometimes called the Cold Amazon situated in 

1. Russia
2. Canada
3. Sweden
4. Iceland

Answer:  (b) Canada

In News:Toxic mercury trapped in Arctic’s permafrost is now leaking into environment due to global warming: Study

Explanation:

• As the Arctic’s permafrost thaws in a warming climate, an enormous amount of toxic mercury is being released into the environment, which would have serious health implications for the flora and fauna spread across the globe, a recent study has warned. 
• According to the study published in the journal Environment Resesarch Letters, researchers conducted experiments in Alaska’s Yukon river basin to determine how quickly the trapped mercury is being released from the Arctic’s permafrost and how soon a ‘mercury bomb’ could possibly explode.
• A significant amount of total mercury (THg) is liberated from permafrost during glacial erosion, while a variable but generally lesser portion is subsequently redeposited by migrating rivers, stated the study led by American researcher Magdalene Isabel Smith.
• The mercury content was generally higher in sediment, with finer rather than coarser grains. This suggested specific soil types could pose greater risks. 
• Abrupt thawing events can rapidly mobilise metres-thick deposits of sediment, potentially releasing large mercury stores. 
• The study gave an instance of how thaw slumps (a type of landslide that occurs in the terrestrial Arctic’s permafrost region) adjacent to a tributary of the Mackenzie river in Canada were shown to elevate suspended particulate mercury contents downstream.Hence option(b) is correct.
• Forged from the western runoff off the Great Slave Lake, the Mackenzie River follows a northwesterly path for 4,241 km to the Beaufort Sea. 
• The watershed– that area of land that collects precipitation that ends up on the Mackenzie River – spans six provinces and territories including the Yukon, the Northwest Territories, Nunavut, British Columbia, Alberta and Saskatchewan. In total, the watershed covers some 1.3 million square km. 
• The river plays a crucial role in the Arctic Ocean’s circulation and climate systems, estimated to contribute about 11 per cent of its freshwater input.
• Sometimes called the Cold Amazon, the Mackenzie is wide, deep, and long, just like the South American behemoth.
•  It’s one to three kilometres in width along most of its course and often speckled with inner islands. 
•  But one obvious difference between these two iconic rivers is the temperature: it’s cold in the Lower Mackenzie watershed.
• A large portion of the river is ice laden a majority of the year. 
• The Mackenzie only begins to open up in mid-May, while the Great Slave Lake is often covered until mid-June. 
• The river’s system also encompasses some of the most treacherous and rugged frozen landscapes in the world, crossing the Arctic Circle and flowing through the Canadian Shield.

Source:

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/toxic-mercury-trapped-in-arctics-permafrost-is-now-leaking-into-environment-due-to-global-warming-study

05.Consider the following:

Region in news                           Country

1. Darfur                  –        Ethiopia
2. Kordofan             –         Sudan
3. Aleppo                 –         Iraq

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Answer:  (a) Only one

In News:Sudan war mediators welcome new pledges on humanitarian access

Explanation:

• The international mediators engaged in talks to bring Sudan’s war to an end have welcomed decisions by the warring sides to facilitate the delivery of humanitarian relief to the country.
• In a joint statement the sponsors of the talks in Switzerland lauded the paramilitary Rapid Support Forces’s commitment to cooperate with humanitarian deliveries to Sudan’s Darfur and Kordofan states.
• The mediators – the United States, Saudi Arabia, Switzerland, Egypt, the United Arab Emirates, the African Union and the United Nations – also praised the Sudanese Armed Forces’s decision to open the Adre border crossing with Chad into North Darfur for three months.
• “These constructive decisions by both parties will enable the entry of aid needed to stop the famine, address food insecurity and respond to immense humanitarian needs in Darfur and beyond,” they said in a joint statement.
• They also called on the warring sides to “immediately communicate and coordinate with humanitarian partners to efficiently operationalize these corridors with full and unhindered access”.
• The historic city of Aleppo, Syria’s oldest and largest, dates back to the sixth century BC. It was a major trading hub during the Ottoman Empire, its architecture impressive and its culture vibrant and diverse. The old city, with its medieval mansions, alleyways and souqs, was classified as a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1986.Hence option(a) is correct.

Source:

https://www.aljazeera.com/news/2024/8/17/sudan-war-mediators-welcome-new-pledges-on-humanitarian-access

06. Joint exercise ‘Mitra Shakti’ is an annual training event conducted alternatively in India and 

1. Nepal
2. Bhutan
3. China
4. Sri Lanka

Answer: (d) Sri Lanka

In News: Army fields tactical ‘assault canine’ Zac at bilateral exercise in Sri Lanka

Explanation:

The Armies of India and Sri Lanka have deployed canines — “K9s” in military parlance — in the bilateral exercise Mitra Shakti under way in the island nation. The Indian Army has deployed Zac, a Belgian Malinois, while Sri Lanka has fielded two canines. Hence option (d) is correct

About Mitra Shakti

• The 10th edition of the India-Sri Lanka Joint Military Exercise ‘Mitra Shakti’ at the Army Training School, Maduru Oya, will be conducted from August 12-25. 
• It will enhance the joint military capability so as to undertake counter-insurgency operations in a sub-conventional scenario under the UN mandate.
• It aims to improve the operational proficiency of both armies by facilitating the exchange of skills, experiences, and best practices.
• This collaboration is designed to enhance the armies’ abilities to handle contemporary security challenges, such as counter-terrorism and urban warfare.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/indian-sri-lankan-canines-train-in-exercise-mitra-shakti/article68539686.ece#:~:text=The%20Indian%20Army%20has%20fielded,bilateral%20exercise%20in%20Sri%20Lanka&text=The%20armies%20of%20India%20and,underway%20in%20the%20island%20nation.

07.With reference to the Californium, consider the following statements

1. It is a silvery-white synthetic radioactive metal
2. It is used in portable metal detectors for identifying gold and silver ores
3. It serves as a neutron source to initiate and sustain nuclear reactions

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Answer:  (c) All three

In News: The Californium that wasn’t — how ‘radioactive’ substance kept Bihar’s Gopalganj police on edge

Explanation:

• Bihar’s Gopalganj police seized what they suspected was Californium, a highly radioactive synthetic metal that’s prohibitively expensive. 
• The seizure shook the entire district police set up, prompting scientists from the Department of Atomic Energy to get involved

About Californium

• Californium is a silvery-white synthetic radioactive metal with the atomic number 98 on the periodic table. Hence statement 1 is correct
• Californium is a member of the actinide series in the periodic table. 
• It is not found naturally and is produced through nuclear reactions, specifically by bombarding curium with helium ions.
• It is a very strong neutron emitter and is used in portable metal detectors for identifying gold and silver ores. Hence statement 2 is correct
• It serves as a neutron source to initiate and sustain nuclear reactions, optimising reactor performance. Hence statement 3 is correct
• Californium plays a crucial role in radiation therapy, particularly for treating cancers such as those of the brain.
• It’s used optimising coal power plants
• To help identify water and oil layers in oil wells

The element’s most notable isotopes include 

• Cf-251, which has a half-life of 898 years and is the most stable
• Cf-249 and Cf-250, which have shorter half-lives. 

Source:https://indianexpress.com/article/long-reads/californium-radioactive-substance-bihar-gopalganj-police-9516216/lite/

08.With reference to Krishi-DSS ,consider the following statements

1. It is a digital geospatial platform that offers easy access to comprehensive agricultural data across India.
2. It was developed jointly by the NITI Aayog and the Department of Space. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

In News: Centre launches new decision support system for agriculture sector

Explanation:

The Union government on Friday launched a unique digital geospatial platform called Krishi-Decision Support System (Krishi-DSS)

About Krishi-Decision Support System (Krishi-DSS)

• It provides seamless access to comprehensive all-India data, including satellite images of farms, weather information, water reservoir storage, groundwater levels, and soil health information, from anywhere at any time. Hence statement 1 is correct
• The platform — developed jointly by the Ministry of Agriculture and the Department of Space — captures minute details from the vast expanse of fields to the smallest soil particle.Hence statement 2 is incorrect
• Krishi-DSS will enable the government to understand cropping patterns by analysing parcel-level crop maps of different years.
• Krishi-DSS will enable the government to accurately identify field-parcel units, which will help in understanding each parcel’s unique needs, and cropping patterns, for targeted interventions.

Source: https://www.business-standard.com/industry/agriculture/centre-launches-new-decision-support-system-for-agriculture-sector-124081601589_1.html

09.Which of the following statements is correct regarding Foreign portfolio investment ?

1. It involves holding financial assets from a country outside of the investor’s own.
2. Like FDI,it consists of passive ownership.
3. Investments made by Non-Resident Indians are categorized as FPI.
4. There is no regulatory framework governing FPI in India.

Answer: (a) It involves holding financial assets from a country outside of the investor’s own

In News: FPI strategy: Sell in stock market and buy through IPO route

Explanation:

• FPIs sold equity for Rs 28,976 crore through the exchange even while investing Rs 11,483 crore through the primary market category in the month of August so far.

About Foreign portfolio investment

• It refers to the purchase of securities and other financial assets by investors from another country. Hence statement 1 is correct
• FPI holdings may consist of stocks, ADRs, GDRs, bonds, mutual funds, and exchange-traded funds.
• Unlike direct ownership, FPI involves passive ownership, granting investors no control over ventures, property, or direct stakes in companies.Hence statement 2 is incorrect
• Investments made by Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) are not categorized as FPI.Hence statement 3 is incorrect
• Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) has emerged as a significant source of capital for Indian companies in recent years.

Regulatory framework governing FPI in India. Hence statement 4 is incorrect

• The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.
• SEBI’s regulations on foreign institutional investors (FIIs).

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/market/fpi-strategy-sell-in-stock-market-and-buy-through-ipo-route-9521302/

10. Consider the following statements

1. Lateral entry refers to the process of appointing individuals from the private sector, state government, autonomous bodies, or public sector undertakings.
2. The selection process for lateral entry positions is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) or other designated bodies. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)Both 1 and 2

In News: UPSC issues ad for lateral entry into bureaucracy: What is the policy, why it has no reservation provision

Explanation:

• The Centre has opened a fresh round of lateral recruitments, from the private sector and elsewhere, into senior posts in the bureaucracy. 
• Such appointments have also been criticised for not extending reservations to SC, ST and OBC communities.

About Lateral entry 

• Lateral entry refers to the process of appointing individuals from the private sector, state government, autonomous bodies, or public sector undertakings directly to mid-level and senior positions in the government. Hence statement 1 is correct
• This initiative targets positions such as joint secretaries, directors, and deputy secretaries, aiming to bring in domain-specific expertise and fresh perspectives to enhance governance.
• The government introduced lateral entry to diversify the pool of talent in its administrative machinery. 
• By bringing in specialists with proven expertise and experience in specific domains, the initiative seeks to bolster policy formulation and implementation with innovative ideas and best practices from the private and public sectors outside the traditional civil services.
• Individuals working in the private sector, state governments, autonomous bodies, or public sector undertakings with domain expertise and a proven track record in relevant fields are eligible to apply for these positions. 
• The selection criteria typically emphasize professional accomplishment and subject matter expertise.
• The selection process for lateral entry positions is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) or other designated bodies. Hence statement 2 is correct
•  These ‘lateral entrants’ would be part of the central secretariat which, till then, had only career bureaucrats from the All India Services/ Central Civil Services. They would be given contracts of three years, extendable to a total term of five years.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/upsc-lateral-entry-bureaucracy-reservations-9520211/