01. With reference to the International Court of Justice(ICJ), which one of the following statements is correct?
- The Court has jurisdiction over applications from individuals, non-governmental organizations, corporations or any other private entity.
- It can try individuals accused of war crimes or crimes against humanity.
- The Court cannot take up suo moto cases and can only hear a dispute when requested to do so by one or more States.
- The Court’s advisory opinions are binding and carry great legal weight and moral authority.
Answer: (c) The Court cannot take up suo moto cases and can only hear a dispute when requested to do so by one or more States.
In News:Israeli occupation in Palestine ‘illegal’: ICJ
Explanation:
The UN’s top court on Friday said Israel’s decades-long occupation of Palestinian territory was “illegal” and needed to end as soon as possible.The advisory opinion of The Hague-based is not binding, but it comes amid mounting concern over Israel’s war against Hamas sparked by the group’s brutal October 7 attacks.
About International Court of Justice (ICJ):
- The Court is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations. It was established by the United Nations Charter, which was signed in 1945 in San Francisco (United States), and began work in 1946 in the Peace Palace, The Hague (Netherlands).
- The Court, which is composed of 15 judges, has a twofold role: first, to settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes between States submitted to it by them and, second, to give advisory opinions on legal matters referred to it by duly authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies.
- The Court’s official languages are English and French.
- Only States are eligible to appear before the Court in contentious cases. At present, this essentially means the 193 Member States of the United Nations.
- The Court has no jurisdiction to deal with applications from individuals, non-governmental organizations, corporations or any other private entity. Hence option (a) is incorrect.It cannot provide them with legal advice or help them in their dealings with national authorities.
- However, a State may take up the case of one of its nationals and invoke against another State the wrongs which its national claims to have suffered at the hands of the latter; the dispute then becomes one between States.
- The International Court of Justice has no jurisdiction to try individuals accused of war crimes or crimes against humanity. Hence option (b) is incorrect. As it is not a criminal court, it does not have a prosecutor able to initiate proceedings.
- The Court can only hear a dispute when requested to do so by one or more States. It cannot deal with a dispute on its own initiative. Hence option (c) is correct. Neither is it permitted, under its Statute, to investigate and rule on acts of sovereign States as it chooses.
- The States involved in the dispute must also have access to the Court and have accepted its jurisdiction, in other words they must consent to the Court’s considering the dispute in question. This is a fundamental principle governing the settlement of international disputes, since States are sovereign and free to choose how to resolve their disputes.
- Judgments delivered by the Court (or by one of its Chambers) in disputes between States are binding upon the parties concerned. Article 94 of the United Nations Charter provides that “[e]ach Member of the United Nations undertakes to comply with the decision of [the Court] in any case to which it is a party”.
- Judgments are final and without appeal. If there is a dispute about the meaning or scope of a judgment, the only possibility is for one of the parties to make a request to the Court for an interpretation. In the event of the discovery of a fact hitherto unknown to the Court which might be a decisive factor, either party may apply for revision of the judgment.
Advisory jurisdiction:
- As regards advisory opinions, it is usually for the United Nations organs and specialized agencies requesting them to give effect to them or not, by whichever means they see fit.
- Since States alone are entitled to appear before the Court, public (governmental) international organizations cannot be parties to a case before it. However, a special procedure, the advisory procedure, is available to such organizations and to them alone. This procedure is available to five United Nations organs, fifteen specialized agencies and one related organization.
- Accordingly The U.N’s General Assembly asked the ICJ in late 2022 to give an “advisory opinion” on the “legal consequences arising from the policies and practices of Israel in the Occupied Palestinian Territory, including East Jerusalem
- Though based on contentious proceedings,advisory proceedings have distinctive features resulting from the special nature and purpose of the advisory function.
- Contrary to judgments, and except in rare cases where it is expressly provided that they shall have binding force (for example, as in the Convention on the Privileges and Immunities of the United Nations, the Convention on the Privileges and Immunities of the Specialized Agencies of the United Nations, and the Headquarters Agreement between the United Nations and the United States of America), the Court’s advisory opinions are not binding. The requesting organ, agency or organization remains free to decide, as it sees fit, what effect to give to these opinions.
- Despite having no binding force, the Court’s advisory opinions nevertheless carry great legal weight and moral authority.Hence option (d) is incorrect. They are often an instrument of preventive diplomacy and help to keep the peace. In their own way, advisory opinions also contribute to the clarification and development of international law and thereby to the strengthening of peaceful relations between States.
Source:
https://www.icj-cij.org/index.php/frequently-asked-questions
02. Consider the following statements with reference to Union Public Service Commission(UPSC):
- It is a constitutional body mentioned in Part XIV of the Constitution.
- The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
- A member of the UPSC may resign from office by submitting the written resignation to the President of India.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Answer: (c) All three
In News: UPSC chairman Manoj Soni confirms resignation
Explanation:
- Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) Chairperson Dr Manoj Soni has resigned from the top post five years before his tenure that would end in 2029, citing “personal reasons”.
About UPSC:
- Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution contain elaborate provisions regarding the composition, appointment and removal of members along with the independence, power and functions of the UPSC. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the President of India.
- The Constitution, without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the President, who determines its composition.
- Further, no qualifications are prescribed for the Commission’s membership except that one half of the members of the Commission should be such persons who have held office for at least ten years either under the Government of India or under the government of a state.
- The Constitution also authorises the President to determine the conditions of service of the chairman and other members of the Commission.
- In addition, the President is authorised to make provisions with respect to the number of members of the staff of the Commission and their conditions of service.
- The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Hence statement 2 is correct
- However, they can relinquish their offices at any time by addressing their resignation to the president. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- They can also be removed before the expiry of their term by the President in the manner as provided in the Constitution.
Source:
https://upsc.gov.in/about-us/constitutional-provisions
03. Consider the following statements with reference to disguised unemployment:
- It occurs when productivity is low and too many workers are filling too few jobs.
- It drastically affects aggregate economic output.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
In News: Living in denial about unemployment
Explanation:
The Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE), a private data-gathering agency which publishes data on employment and unemployment, reported in July that in June 2024, the unemployment rate had risen to an eight-month high of 9.2% up from 7% in the previous month.
Considering the importance of availability of labour force data at more frequent time intervals, National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) launched Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) in April 2017.The objective of PLFS is primarily twofold: to estimate the key employment and unemployment indicators (viz. Worker Population Ratio, Labour Force Participation Rate, Unemployment Rate) in the short time interval of three months for the urban areas only in the ‘Current Weekly Status’ (CWS);to estimate employment and unemployment indicators in both ‘Usual Status’ (ps+ss) and CWS in both rural and urban areas annually.
PLFS is different from the CMIE data. This has to do with differences in definitions, such as who is counted as employed. The CMIE adopts the International Labour Organization definition and counts only those who get an income from work as employed. PLFS counts those who are working even if they do not get an income from it. So, those giving free labour or those who sit in fields but have no work also get counted as employed by PLFS. Consequently, in the last few years, PLFS has given around 50%-55% labour force participation, while CMIE says the figure stands at 40%-45%. That means there is a huge difference of about 90 million between the two.
There are millions of home makers doing work, for example. Further, PLFS counts the disguised unemployed and the under-employed. So, as far as PLFS is concerned, almost no one is unemployed, while CMIE tells us how many have simply given up looking for work. That is also unemployment, which the official data do not recognise.
About disguised unemployment:
It can refer to any part of the population that is not employed at full capacity.
Disguised unemployment is unemployment that does not affect aggregate economic output.Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
It occurs when productivity is low and too many workers are filling too few jobs.Hence statement 1 is correct.
Disguised unemployment exists frequently in developing countries whose large populations create a surplus in the labour force. It can be characterised by low productivity and frequently accompanies informal labour markets and agricultural labour markets, which can absorb substantial quantities of labour.
Disguised, or hidden, unemployment can refer to any segment of the population not employed at full capacity, but it is often not counted in official unemployment statistics within the national economy. This can include those working well below their capabilities, those whose positions provide little overall value in terms of productivity, or any group that is not currently looking for work but is able to perform work of value.
Another way to think about disguised unemployment is to say that people are employed but not in a very efficient way. They have skills that are being left on the table, are working jobs that do not fit their skills (possibly due to an inefficiency in the market that fails to recognize their skills), or are working but not as much as they would like.
Types of Disguised Unemployment
- Underemployment
- Illness and Disability
- No Longer Looking for Work
Source:
https://www.investopedia.com/terms/d/disguised-unemployment.asp
04. Consider the following statements with reference to Right to Education Act 2009:
- It was enacted to give effect to Article 21 of the Constitution.
- It provides for free and compulsory education to all children between the ages of 6 and 14 years.
- It mandates a minimum of 25% free seats at the entry level for children belonging to weaker sections and disadvantaged groups in all private unaided primary schools.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Answer: (b) Only two
In News: RTE quota: Bombay HC junks Maharashtra govt notification giving conditional exemption to private schools
Explanation:
- The Bombay High Court on July 19 quashed and set aside a February 9, 2024 notification of the Maharashtra government that exempted private schools from providing 25% Right to Education (RTE) Act quota admissions to disadvantaged and economically weaker students in class 1 and preschool sections within a kilometre radius of government-run or aided schools.
- Setting aside the rules as unconstitutional to the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 (RTE Act), a Division Bench of Chief Justice Devendra K. Upadhyaya and Justice Amit Borkar said that the impugned provision was “ultra vires of RTE Act and Article 21 of Constitution” and declared, “The notification is held to be null and void.”
- The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right in such a manner as the State may, by law, determine
- The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act or Right to Education Act (RTE), is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted on 4 August 2009, which describes the modalities of the importance of free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 in India under Article 21-A of the Indian Constitution. Hence statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
- It makes provisions for a non-admitted child to be admitted to an age appropriate class.
- It specifies the duties and responsibilities of appropriate Governments, local authority and parents in providing free and compulsory education, and sharing of financial and other responsibilities between the Central and State Governments.
- It lays down the norms and standards relating inter alia to Pupil Teacher Ratios (PTRs), buildings and infrastructure, school-working days, teacher-working hours.
- It provides for rational deployment of teachers by ensuring that the specified pupil teacher ratio is maintained for each school, rather than just as an average for the State or District or Block, thus ensuring that there is no urban-rural imbalance in teacher postings. It also provides for prohibition of deployment of teachers for non-educational work, other than decennial census, elections to local authority, state legislatures and parliament, and disaster relief.
- It provides for appointment of appropriately trained teachers, i.e. teachers with the requisite entry and academic qualifications.
- It prohibits (a) physical punishment and mental harassment; (b) screening procedures for admission of children; (c) capitation fee; (d) private tuition by teachers and (e) running of schools without recognition,
- It provides for development of curriculum in consonance with the values enshrined in the Constitution, and which would ensure the all-round development of the child, building on the child’s knowledge, potentiality and talent and making the child free of fear, trauma and anxiety through a system of child friendly and child centered learning.
- Section 12(1)(c) of the RTE Act states that all schools (private, unaided, aided or special category) must reserve 25% of their seats at the entry level for students from the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) and disadvantaged groups.
Source:
https://dsel.education.gov.in/rte
05. Consider the following statements with reference to immunity provided to Governors:
- The Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise of the powers and duties of his office.
- No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor in any court during his term of office.
- A Governor can be arrested or detained during or after his/her tenure.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Answer: (b) Only two
In News: Supreme Court agrees to examine constitutional provision granting immunity to Governors
Explanation:ARTICLE 361 OF THE CONSTITUTION
Article 361 of the Constitution addresses the immunity granted to the President and Governors.
Article 361(1): The President, or the Governor or Rajpramukh of a State, shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Provided that the conduct of the President may be brought under review by any court, tribunal or body appointed or designated by either House of Parliament for the investigation of a charge under Article 61
Provided further, nothing in this clause shall be construed as restricting the right of any person to bring appropriate proceedings against the Government of India or the Government of a State.
Article 361(2): No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Article 361(3): No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President or the Governor of a State shall be issued from any court during his term of office. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Article 361(4): No civil proceedings in which relief is claimed against the President or the Governor of a State shall be instituted during his term of office in any court in respect of any act done or purporting to be done by him in his personal capacity, whether before or after he entered upon his office as President, or as Governor of such State, until the expiration of two months next after notice in writing has been delivered to the President or the Governor, as the case may be, or left at his office stating the nature of the proceedings, the cause of action therefore, the name, description and place of residence of the party by whom such proceedings are to be instituted and the relief which he claims.
Source:
06. Consider the following statements with reference to uranium pollution:
- Over-exploitation of groundwater for agricultural irrigation can cause uranium pollution.
- Reverse osmosis can be used to remove uranium from drinking water.
- There is no safe level of uranium in drinking water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1,2 and 3
Answer:(a) 1 and 2 only
In News:60 µg/l uranium in drinking water safe: Nuclear safety watchdog
Explanation:
A new study by scientists from the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) has concluded that concentration of uranium, a radioactive substance, up to 60 micrograms per litre (millionth of a gram per litre or µg/l) in drinking water was entirely safe. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Studies show that elevated levels of uranium in drinking water can affect the kidneys. Bathing and showering with water that contains uranium is not considered a health concern. In general, most drinking water sources have radioactive contaminants at levels that are low enough to be considered a public health. However, elevated levels of Uranium in drinking water have been reported in many parts of the world including India. U.S. EPA and the WHO have set drinking water standards for Uranium in drinking water at 30 μg/L. Atomic Energy Regulatory Board, India has prescribed the maximum limit of U in drinking water at 60 μg/L (ppb) Bureau of Indian Standards does not specify a norm for uranium level.
While the primary source of uranium is geogenic (naturally occurring), anthropogenic (human caused) factors such as groundwater table decline and nitrate pollution may further enhance uranium mobilisation. Human activities, especially the over-exploitation of groundwater for agricultural irrigation, may contribute to the problem.Hence statement 1 is correct.
Reverse osmosis (RO) is a common and effective way to remove uranium from water. RO systems use a semipermeable membrane to filter water, trapping minerals like uranium behind.Hence statement 2 is correct.
Source:
https://cgwb.gov.in/cgwbpnm/public/uploads/documents/1686055876713864961file.pdf
07. Moidams, which is presently on the tentative list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites, is present in which state?
- Sikkim
- West Bengal
- Meghalaya
- Assam
Answer: (d) Assam
In News: Assam’s 700-yr-old Moidams to be considered for World Heritage List
Explanation:
Charaideo Maidams
- The Charaideo maidams represent the late medieval (13th-19th century CE) mound burial tradition of the Tai Ahom community in Assam.
- The Ahoms preferred to place the departed family members at Charaideo where the first king Sukapha was laid to rest.
- The historical chronicles inform that wives, attendants, pet animals and huge quantity of valuables were buried with the departed kings.
- The Charaideo Maidams enshrine the mortal remains of the members of the Ahom royalty, who used to be buried with their paraphernalia.
- After the 18th century, the Ahom rulers adopted the Hindu method of cremation and began entombing the cremated bones and ashes in a Maidam at Charaideo.
- Out of 386 Maidams explored so far, 90 royal burials at Charaideo are the best preserved, representative of and the most complete examples of mound burial tradition of the Ahoms.
Architecture details
- Architecturally it comprises a massive underground vault with one or more chambers having domical superstructure.
- It is covered by a heap of earthen mound and externally it appears a hemispherical mound.
- At the top of the mound a small open pavilion chow-chali is provided.
- An octagonal dwarf wall encloses the whole moidam.
Source:
08. Consider the following with reference to Chota Char Dham:
| Temples | Rivers flowing |
| Badrinath | Alaknanda |
| Kedarnath | Mandakini |
| Gangotri | Bhagirathi |
| Yamunotri | Yamuna |
How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Answer: (d) All four
In News: In eye of storm, Dhami cabinet proposes law that would stop others from using chardham temple names
Explanation:
The Chota Char Dham (lit. ‘the small four abodes/seats’ or ‘the small circuit of four abodes/seats’) is an important modern Hindu pilgrimage circuit[1] in Uttarakhand, in the Indian Himalayas. Located in the Garhwal region of the state of Uttarakhand, the circuit consists of four sites—Gangotri, Yamunotri, Kedarnath, and Badrinath.
Yamunotri Dham:The Yamunotri temple, lodged in a narrow gorge close to the source of River Yamuna (the second-most sacred Indian river after River Ganga) in Uttarkashi district, is dedicated to Goddess Yamuna.Hence pair 4 is correct.
Gangotri Dham:Nestled around the Gangotri temple, the town of Gangotri Dham is a sacred pilgrimage site situated along the banks of the Bhagirathi River. Hence pair 3 is correct.
Kedarnath Dham:Nestled at 3584 m amid the Himalayan peaks, the Kedarnath Dham is the ultimate pilgrimage for Lord Shiva worshippers. The temple is located near Mandakini river.Hence pair 2 is correct.
Badrinath Dham:The Badrinath temple is the main attraction in the town. According to legend, Adi Shankaracharya discovered a black stone image of Lord Badrinarayan made of Shaligram stone in the Alaknanda River.Hence pair 1 is correct.
Source:
https://uttarakhandtourism.gov.in/activity/char-dham
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Char_Dham
09. Consider the following statements with reference to Article 16(3):
- Both the central and state governments have the concurrent power to prescribe local residence as a pre-criterion for employment.
- It can be applied to both public as well as private organisations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
In News: Wrongheaded policy: On the Karnataka jobs-for-locals bill
Explanation:
- A case in point is the draft Karnataka State Employment of Local Candidates in the Industries, Factories and Other Establishments Bill, 2024, cleared by the Congress government’s cabinet but later “temporarily withheld” following an uproar from industry heads and trade bodies in Karnataka. The Bill envisaged that industries and other establishments would appoint local candidates in 50% of management positions and 70% of non-management positions, and set stringent criteria for defining local candidates. Similar Bills were passed in Andhra Pradesh in 2019, Haryana in 2020, and Jharkhand in 2023.
- The Punjab and Haryana High Court quashed the Haryana Act in 2023 holding it violative of equality guaranteed under Article 14 and freedom under Article 19 of the Constitution. It added that the Act went against the rights of citizens from the rest of the country and that States enacting such laws could set up “artificial walls” throughout India.
- Clause (3) of Article 16 states that the Parliament can enact any legislation requiring residence in a state or union territory as a pre-condition for particular employment or appointments in the respective state or union territory or in local authorities or other authorities within that state or union territory. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Article 16(3) of the Indian Constitution only applies to public employment, not private organisations. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Source:
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/211089/
10.The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:
- The number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.
- The number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.
- The birth rate minus death rate.
- The average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.
Answer: (d) The average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.
Explanation:
- According to WHO, total fertility rate is directly calculated as the sum of age-specific fertility rates (usually referring to women aged 15 to 49 years)
- The total fertility rate (TFR) of a population is the average number of children that are born to a woman over her lifetime, if they were to experience the exact current age-specific fertility rates (ASFRs) through their lifetime, and they were to live from birth until the end of their reproductive life. Hence option (d) is correct