01. How many of the following is/ are the constituent pillars of the PM Jan Dhan Yojna ?

  1. Universal access to banking services 
  2. Overdraft Facility 
  3. Financial Literacy Programme 
  4. Creation of Credit Guarantee Fund 
  5. Pension scheme

Select the correct option using codes given below:

  1. Only two 
  2. Only three
  3. Only four
  4. All five

Answer:  (d) All five

In News: The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), launched by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi on 28th August 2014, completes a decade of successful implementation today. 

Explanation:

  • Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is the National Mission for Financial Inclusion. It ensures access to financial services, namely, Banking/ Savings & Deposit Accounts, Remittance, Credit, Insurance, Pension in an affordable manner.
  • PMJDY has been the foundation stone for people-centric economic initiatives. Whether it is Direct Benefit Transer (DBT), Covid-19 financial assistance, PM-KISAN, increased wages under Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGA), life and health insurance cover, the first step of all these initiatives is to provide every adult with a bank account, which PMJDY has nearly completed.
  • Six Pillars of the Scheme
  • Universal access to banking services: Branch and Banking Correspondants.
  • Overdraft Facility: Basic savings bank accounts with overdraft facility of Rs. 10,000/- to every eligible adult.
  • Financial Literacy Programme: Promoting savings, use of ATMs, getting ready for credit, availing insurance and pensions, using basic mobile phones for banking.
  • Creation of Credit Guarantee Fund: To provide banks some guarantee against defaults.
  • Insurance: Accident cover up to Rs. 1,00,000 and life cover of Rs. 30,000 on account opened between 15 Aug 2014 to 31 January 2015.
  • Pension scheme for Unorganized sector. Hence option(d) is correct.
  • Achievements of PMJDY in 10 years are 
  • More than 53.14 crore beneficiaries banked under PMJDY since inception
  • Total deposit balances under PMJDY Accounts stand at Rs. 2,31,236 crore
  • PMJDY accounts grow 3.6 -fold from 15.67 crore in March 2015 to 53.14 crore as on 14-08-2024
  • Around 55.6% Jan-Dhan account holders are women and around 66.6% Jan Dhan accounts in rural and semi-urban areas
  • 36.14 crore RuPay cards issued to PMJDY account holders. 

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2049231

02. Consider the following pairs:

BooksTeachings
Vinaya Pitaka  Rules of conduct and discipline
Sutta Pitaka Philosophical analysis
Abhidhamma PitakaMain teaching or Dhamma of Buddha.

How many of the above pairs is/ are correctly matched?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three 
  4. None

Answer:  (a) Only one

In News: International Buddhist Confederation to organize a Two-day Conference at Nalanda

Explanation:

  • The Buddha’s teaching was oral. He taught for 45 years, adapting the teaching to suit the group he was addressing. The Sangha memorized the teachings, and there were group recitations at festivals and special occasions.
  • The teachings were rehearsed and authenticated at the First Council and were divided in Three Pitakas in 483 BC. His teachings were written down around 25 B.C.E. in Pali.
  • Three Pitakas
  • The Vinaya Pitaka consists of rules of conduct and discipline applicable to the monastic life of the monks and nuns.
  • The Sutta Pitaka consists of the main teaching or Dhamma of Buddha. It is divided into five Nikayas or collections. 
  • Digha Nikaya
  • Majjhima Nikaya
  • Samyutta Nikaya
  • Anguttara Nikaya
  • Khuddaka Nikaya
  • The Abhidamma Pitaka is a philosophical analysis and systematization of the teaching and the scholarly activity of the monks. 
  • Other important Buddhist texts include Divyavadana, Dipavamsa, Mahavamsa, Milind Panha etc. Hence option (a) is correct. 

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2049093

03. Consider the following statements with respect to Great Indian Bustard:

  1. Great Indian Bustard is the flagship grassland species of India. 
  2. It is designated as critically endangered under the IUCN Red list. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (c) Both 1 and 2

In News:  Great Indian Bustard conservation efforts struggle as numbers dwindle to 2 in Karnataka

Explanation:

  • The Great Indian Bustard, found mainly in the Indian subcontinent, is the flagship grassland species of India. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
  • It is one of the largest flying birds in the world, and India’s heaviest flying bird. The male bird weighs upto 12-15 kg and female bird up to 5-8 kg.
  • They feed on grass seeds, insects like grasshoppers and beetles, and sometimes even small rodents and reptiles. The species primarily feed on meswak, sewan grass. 
  • Distribution:
  • Its population of about 150 in Rajasthan accounts for 95% of its total world population. And it is the state bird of Rajasthan. 
  • They are mainly in Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan, including the Desert National Park which is the natural habitat of the species.
  • Grasslands of Kutch in Gujarat which is home to second-largest bustard population in India.
  • Arid regions of Maharashtra (Solapur), Karnataka (Bellary and Haveri) and Andhra Pradesh (Kurnool)
  • Listed in Appendix I of CITES and Listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • Threats: 
  • Occasional poaching outside Protected Areas,
  • Habitat loss due to widespread agricultural expansion, infrastructural development such as irrigation, roads, electric poles, as well as mining and industrialization,
  • Bustards, with their poor frontal vision and heavy bodies, have also died due to collision with high tension electric wires.

Source:

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/great-indian-bustard-conservation-efforts-struggle-as-numbers-dwindle-to-2-in-karnataka

04. Gwadar sometimes seen in news is situated in 

  1. Pakistan
  2. Afghanistan
  3. Iran
  4. Yemen

Answer:  (a) Pakistan

In News:On the unrest in the Balochistan region

Explanation:

  • The recent protests constitute an important episode in Balochistan’s long history of political turmoil. 
  • In 1947, the Khan of Kalat announced the formation of an independent state in Balochistan. After sustained coercive tactics by Pakistan’s leadership, the Khan of Kalat signed the instrument of accession in 1948.
  • Interestingly, at the time of Pakistan’s independence, Gwadar was part of the Sultanate of Oman. After prolonged negotiations with Oman, Pakistan was able to purchase Gwadar in 1958. This history of independence, resistance, and incorporation of territories through coercion continues to dene Balochistan’s political trajectory.Hence option(a) is correct.
  • Additionally, in 1955, various provinces and ethnic areas in West Pakistan were subsumed into a single province under the One Unit scheme. 
  • The scheme resulted in considerable centralisation of power and negated the basic principles of federalism. After much opposition, it was abolished in 1970 leading to the emergence of provincial assemblies, including in Balochistan.
  • Balochistan, accounting for 44% of the country’s landmass — with significant mineral resources, such as copper, gold, coal, and natural gas continues to be one of the most backward regions in Pakistan.
  • According to the 2018-19 UNDP report, Balochistan accounted for 4.5% of Pakistan’s GDP, 14% of the national road network, and 4% of its national electricity consumption.

Source:

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/balochistan-unrest-causes-reasons/article68570181.ece

05.With reference to the National Human Rights Commission ,consider the following statements:

Statement -I: 

The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established on 12 October, 1993.

Statement -II: 

The Commission consists of a Chairperson, ten full-time Members and seven deemed Members

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. Both Statement – I and Statement – II are correct and Statement – II is the correct explanation for Statement – I
  2. Both Statement – I and Statement – II are correct and Statement – II is not the correct explanation for Statement – I
  3. Statement – I is correct but Statement – II is incorrect
  4. Statement – I is incorrect but Statement – II is correct

Answer:  (c) Statement – I is correct but Statement – II is incorrect

In News:NHRC, India declares the winners of its online human rights photography competition, 2024

Explanation:

  • The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), India has announced the results of its online human rights photography competition – 2024 organized in collaboration with MyGov. The Full Commission Jury comprising of the Acting Chairperson, Secretary General, Divisional Heads and an external expert after due deliberations did not find any photograph suitable for the 1st and 2nd prizes.
  • However, one photograph was chosen for the third prize of Rs. 5,000/- and 5 for the consolation prize of Rs. 2,000/- each.
  • The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established on 12 October, 1993.Hence statement 1 is correct
  • The statute under which it is established is the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993 as amended by the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006. 
  • It is in conformity with the Paris Principles, adopted at the first international workshop on national institutions for the promotion and protection of human rights held in Paris in October 1991, and endorsed by the General Assembly of the United Nations by its Regulations 48/134 of 20 December, 1993.
  • The NHRC is an embodiment of India’s concern for the promotion and protection of human rights.
  • Section 2(1)(d) of the PHRA defines Human Rights as the rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the International Covenants and enforceable by courts in India.
  • The Commission consists of a Chairperson, five full-time Members and seven deemed Members. 
  • The statute lays down qualifications for the appointment of the Chairperson and Members of the Commission. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2049223

06. With reference to the GST Council, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a joint forum of the Centre and the States,Union Finance Minister as a Chairperson.
  2. The GST Council is a constitutional body responsible for making recommendations on issues related to the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax.
  3. The Council has been instrumental in deciding key issues related to the GST such as tax rates, exemptions, thresholds, and administrative procedures.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None

Answer:  (c) All three

In News:GST Council to discuss rate rejig exercise at Sept 9 meet

Explanation:

  • The GST Council, in its meeting to be held on September 9, is expected to discuss the roadmap for rate rationalisation exercise. However, the final decision will be taken later on. 
  • During the meeting, the committee of ocers will make a detailed presentation on the deliberations that have taken place till now on the rate rationalisation exercise. 
  • Then, the Group of Ministers (GoM) will take it forward and work on the recommendations and those will be considered by the GST Council in the next meeting.
  • A GoM, under the convenorship of Bihar’s Deputy Chief Minister, Samrat Chaudhary, is working on the rate rationalisation exercise. As on date, there are four normal rates tax rate slabs — 5, 12, 18 and 28 per cent — besides a few special rates such as 0.25 per cent (rough or sown diamond) and 3 per cent (gold and silver).
  •  Some goods in the 28 per cent-slab also attract compensation cess of up to 22 per cent, taking the total rate to 50 per cent. 
  • The GST Council is a constitutional body responsible for making recommendations on issues related to the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India. Hence statement 1 is correct 
  • The first meeting of the GST Council was held on September 22-23, 2016, and since then, the Council meets periodically to deliberate and decide on various issues related to GST.
  • The Council has been instrumental in deciding key issues related to the GST such as tax rates, exemptions, thresholds, and administrative procedures. Hence statement 2 is correct
  •  During its meetings, the GST Council takes decisions through a consensus-based approach every decision of the GST Council shall be taken by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting with a weightage of one-third of the total votes cast to the Centre and a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast to the States, promoting the spirit of the co-operative federalism.
  • As per Article 279A (1) of the amended Constitution, the GST Council has to be constituted by the President within 60 days of the commencement of Article 279A. 
  • The notification for bringing into force Article 279A with effect from 12th September, 2016 was issued on 10th September, 2016.
  • As per Article 279A of the amended Constitution, the GST Council which will be a joint forum of the Centre and the States, shall consist of the following members: -Union Finance Minister – Chairperson,The Union Minister of State, in-charge of Revenue of finance – Member. Hence statement 3 is correct
  • As per Article 279A (4), the Council will make recommendations to the Union and the States on important issues related to GST, like the goods and services that may be subjected or exempted from GST, model GST Laws, principles that govern Place of Supply, threshold limits, GST rates including the floor rates with bands, special rates for raising additional resources during natural calamities/disasters, special provisions for certain States, etc.

Source:

https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/gst-council-to-discuss-rate-rejig-exercise-in-sept-9-meet/article68573654.ece

07.Consider the following statements with respect to creation of new districts in India

  1. Creation of new districts or alter or abolish existing districts can be done through an executive order only.
  2. The new name for a district proposed by the State government shall be forwarded to the Union Home ministry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (b) 2 only

In News: Amit Shah announces five new districts for Ladakh

Explanation: 

  • Union Home Minister Amit Shah said on Monday that five new districts — Zanskar, Drass, Sham, Nubra and Changthang — would be created in the union territory of Ladakh for “bolstering governance in every nook and cranny.” 
  • Ladakh presently has two districts — Leh and Kargil — with autonomous hill development councils.

About Procedure for creation of new districts in India

  • The power to create new districts or alter or abolish existing districts rests with the State governments. 
  • This can either be done through an executive order or by passing a law in the State Assembly.Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 
  • Many States prefer the executive route by simply issuing a notification in the official gazette.
  • States argue that smaller districts lead to better administration and governance.
  • The Centre has no role to play in the alteration of districts or creation of new ones. States are free to decide on this matter. 
  • If the state government wants to change the name of a district or a railway station, then the Home Ministry comes into the picture.
  • The State government will propose a new name to a district and forward the proposal to the home ministry. The Home Ministry will forward the proposal to other departments.  Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • After that, the departments such as the Ministry of Earth Sciences, Intelligence Bureau, Department of Posts, Geographical Survey of India Sciences, and the Railway Ministry, provide their clearance to the proposal of the state government.
  • After examination of their replies, the state government receives a no-objection certificate. Then the name of the district stand changed.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/ladakh/government-decides-to-create-five-new-districts-in-ladakh-says-amit-shah/article68567920.ece

08. What is the aim of PARIVESH 2.0 Portal?

  1. It offers a single-window solution for managing all green clearances and monitors compliance across India. 
  2. It is a technology-driven Control Room-Cum-Management Information System which utilizes modern information and communication technology (ICT) tools.
  3. It is to provide mentoring for supporting MSME to restart business.
  4. It aims for the promotion of research and development in the Mining and Minerals sector.

Answer: (a) It offers a single-window solution for managing all green clearances and monitors compliance across India. 

In News: Forest dept receives 16 applications seeking registration of exotic birds in last five months

Explanation: 

  • The Pune division forest department has received 16 applications in the last five months after the ministry of environment, forest and climate change (MoEFCC) made it compulsory for citizens to get a mandatory licence to possess and breed exotic wild species in captivity.
  • Citizens possessing exotic wild species are required to submit an application electronically through the PARIVESH 2.0 portal to the chief wildlife warden of the state.

About  PARIVESH 2.0 portal

  • Parivesh is a web-based workflow application designed for the online submission and monitoring of proposals seeking Environmental (EC), Forest (FC), Wildlife (WL), and Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) clearances.
  • The portal operates on a role-based system, facilitating a streamlined process for proponents.
  • Its primary objective is to serve as a “single window” solution, employing process automation and leveraging technologies like GIS and Advanced Data Analytics. 
  • This approach aims to ensure expeditious, transparent, and effective decision-making while maintaining stringent environmental safeguards.
  • PARIVESH 2.0 is a web-based workflow application developed by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) for the online submission and monitoring of proposals related to environmental, forest, wildlife, and coastal regulation zone clearances. 
  • It offers a single-window solution for managing all green clearances and monitors compliance across India. Hence option (a) is correct. 
  • The platform emphasises process transformation, technology integration, and domain expertise.

Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/pune-news/forest-dept-receives-16-applications-seeking-registration-of-exotic-birds-in-last-five-months-101724438812271.html

09.Consider the following statements with respect to Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART) Mission:

  1. It is a planetary defence-driven test of technologies for preventing an impact on Earth by a hazardous asteroid.
  2. The experiment that took place in 2022, targeting the near-Earth asteroid Bennu and its moon.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (a) 1 only

In News:NASA’s DART Impact: Asteroid Moon Permanently Transformed

Explanation: 

  • A University of Maryland-led study reveals new details about asteroid dynamics following NASA’s DART mission, which intentionally collided with the asteroid moon Dimorphos in 2022. The impact significantly altered Dimorphos’ trajectory and shape, leading to unexpected gravitational behaviors. 
  • These findings challenge previous assumptions about asteroid evolution and could influence future planetary defense strategies and space missions, as researchers continue to assess the system’s stability and potential for further exploration.
  •  DART only hit the moon, the moon and the main body are connected through gravity. The debris scattered by the spacecraft on impact also played a role in the disturbed equilibrium between the moon and its asteroid, shortening Dimorphos’ orbit around Didymos. 
  • Interestingly, Didymos’ shape remained the same—a finding that indicates that the larger asteroid’s body is firm and rigid enough to maintain its form even after losing mass to create its moon.

About DART Mission

  • It is a planetary defence-driven test of technologies for preventing an impact on Earth by a hazardous asteroid. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
  • The groundbreaking experiment that took place in 2022, targeting the near-Earth asteroid Didymos and its moon, Dimorphous.
  • DART is the first technology demonstration of the kinetic impactor technique that could be used to mitigate the threat of an asteroid hitting Earth. 
  • The target of the spacecraft was a 160-meter-wide asteroid known as Dimorphos, which is a moonlet in orbit around the larger asteroid, Didymos. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. 
  • It was launched in November 2021.
  • DART spacecraft successfully collided with Dimorphos on 26 September 2022, altering the asteroid’s orbit by 33 minutes.
  • It is the first time humanity intentionally changed the motion of a celestial object in space.

Source: https://scitechdaily.com/nasas-dart-impact-asteroid-moon-permanently-transformed/

10.Consider the following statements with respect to INS Mumbai

  1. It is a guided-missile destroyer and the third and final vessel of the Delhi-class destroyers.
  2. It has also been deployed in anti-piracy missions in the Gulf of Aden.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4.  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (c) Both 1 and 2

In News: Indian naval ship INS Mumbai to make first visit to Sri Lanka on August 26

Explanation: 

  • The Indian Naval Ship (INS) Mumbai will arrive at the port of Colombo (August 26, 2024) for a three-day maiden visit to Sri Lanka, the Indian High Commission.

About INS Mumbai

  • INS Mumbai is a guided-missile destroyer and the third and final vessel of the Delhi-class destroyers, following INS Delhi and INS Mysore. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
  • It was commissioned on January 22, 2001. 
  • It was built by Mazagon Dock Limited in Mumbai.
  • It is powered by a combined gas and gas (COGAG) system with Rolls-Royce engines and LM2500 gas turbines, allowing speeds over 30 knots for versatile naval operations.
  • INS Mumbai is a multi-role destroyer designed for anti-surface, anti-air, anti-submarine warfare, and electronic warfare.
  • It has actively participated in international naval exercises like Malabar, Varuna, and Milan, enhancing interoperability with global navies.
  • The ship has also been deployed in anti-piracy missions in the Gulf of Aden and conducted goodwill visits to various ports, bolstering diplomatic and military relations.Hence statement 2 is correct. 

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/indian-naval-ship-ins-mumbai-to-make-first-visit-to-sri-lanka-on-august-26/article68565990.ece

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *