01. Consider the following statements with respect to Artemis accord:
- It provides military satellite support to tackle China.
- It will facilitate advanced training to Indian astronauts.
- It can accelerate the progress of India’s Gaganyaan mission.
- India can access the international space station and other Lunar gateway projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2, 3 and 4
- 1 and 4 only
- None of the above
Answer: (b) 2, 3 and 4
In News: Gaganyaan astronaut to travel to ISS in joint mission with NASA, says Centre
Explanation:
Artemis accord:
- Artemis Accords are established by the U.S. State Department and NASA with seven other founding members: Australia, Canada, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg, the United Arab Emirates, and the United Kingdom in 2020 for setting common principles to govern civil exploration and use of outer space, the moon, Mars, comets, and asteroids, for peaceful purposes.
- It builds upon the foundation of the Outer Space Treaty of 1967.
- India became the 27th country to sign the non binding Artemis Accords.
- Benefits:
- India’s participation in the Artemis Accords facilitates access to advanced training, technological advancements, and scientific opportunities.
- India can leverage the Artemis programme to advance its own lunar exploration goals, such as the Chandrayaan-3 mission.
- Collaborating with NASA would enhance India’s capabilities for the Gaganyaan human mission and future ambitious space missions.
- Also, India’s cost-effective missions and innovative approach will benefit the Artemis program, promoting mutual advancements in space exploration. Hence option(d) is correct.
- Access to the international space station and other Lunar gateway projects.
Outer Space Treaty, 1967:
- Treaty on Principles Governing the Activities of States in the Exploration and Use of Outer Space, including the Moon and Other Celestial Bodies.
- The Treaty was opened for signature by the three depository Governments (the Russian Federation, the United Kingdom and the United States of America) in January 1967, and it entered into force in October 1967.
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02. Consider the following statements regarding Capital gains tax:
- Capital gains can be defined as profits accumulated from the sale of any capital asset.
- It is applicable only to businesses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
In News: ‘No further changes to capital gains tax in medium term’
Explanation:
- The term capital gains can be defined as profits accumulated from the sale of any capital asset.Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Land, buildings, house property, vehicles, patents, trademarks, leasehold rights, machinery, and jewellery are a few examples of capital assets.
- Depending on the duration, capital gains can either be short-term or long-term.
- Since profits are categorised as an ‘income’, they are liable for taxation, which is known as CGT.
- Such taxes are levied when an asset is transferred between owners.
- This tax applies to both individuals and businesses. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- Taxpaying individuals can use tax-efficient financial strategies to reduce the burden of their CGT.
- There are two types of CGT: Short-term CGT and Long-term CGT
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03. With reference to MGNREGA, consider the following statements:
- It is a demand driven scheme.
- At least one-third of beneficiaries have to be women.
- It guarantees 120 days of gainful employment to the rural households
How many of the above statements are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Answer: (b) Only two
In News: MGNREGS expenditure – Desilting taking lion’s share, focus on agri: Govt to Andhra, Telangana
Explanation:
- About MGNREGA: MGNREGA is one of the largest work guarantee programmes in the world launched in 2005 by the Ministry of Rural development.
- The primary objective of the scheme is to guarantee 100 days of employment in every financial year to adult members of any rural household willing to do public work-related unskilled manual work.Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- As of 2023-24, there are 15.4 crore active workers under the MGNREGA.
- Legal Right to Work: Unlike earlier employment guarantee schemes, the act aims at addressing the causes of chronic poverty through a rights-based framework.
- At least one-third of beneficiaries have to be women. .Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Wages must be paid according to the statutory minimum wages specified for agricultural labourers in the state under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948.
- Demand-Driven Scheme: The most important part of MGNREGA’s design is its legally-backed guarantee for any rural adult to get work within 15 days of demanding it, failing which an ‘unemployment allowance’ must be given. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- This demand-driven scheme enables the self-selection of workers.
- Decentralised planning: There is an emphasis on strengthening the process of decentralisation by giving a significant role in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) in planning and implementing these works.
- The act mandates Gram sabhas to recommend the works that are to be undertaken and at least 50% of the works must be executed by them.
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04. Consider the following statements with respect to GST:
- It is a source based tax levied on most goods and services sold for domestic consumption.
- It reduces the cascading effect by the provision of Input tax credit.
- CGST, SGST & IGST are levied at rates to be mutually agreed upon by the Centre and the States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 only
- 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
Answer: (d) 2 and 3 only
In News: ‘Among the petroleum items, crude oil could be brought under GST first’: CBIC Chairman.
Explanation:
- The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a value-added tax levied on most goods and services sold for domestic consumption. The GST is paid by consumers, but it is remitted to the government by the businesses selling the goods and services.
- Features of GST
- Applicable On supply side: GST is applicable on ‘supply’ of goods or services as against the old concept on the manufacture of goods or on sale of goods or on provision of services.
- Destination based Taxation: GST is based on the principle of destination-based consumption taxation as against the present principle of origin-based taxation.Hence statement 1 is incorrect
- Dual GST: It is a dual GST with the Centre and the States simultaneously levying tax on a common base. GST to be levied by the Centre is called Central GST (CGST) and that to be levied by the States is called State GST (SGST).
- Import of goods or services would be treated as inter-state supplies and would be subject to Integrated Goods & Services Tax (IGST) in addition to the applicable customs duties.
- GST rates to be mutually decided: CGST, SGST & IGST are levied at rates to be mutually agreed upon by the Centre and the States. The rates are notified on the recommendation of the GST Council. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Multiple Rates: Initially GST was levied at four rates viz. 5%, 12%, 16% and 28%. The schedule or list of items that would fall under these multiple slabs are worked out by the GST council.
- Earlier businesses and consumers were suffering from the problem of double taxation and the effect of cascading this was rectified by the GST as it brought the provision of Input tax credit. Hence statement 2 is correct.
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05. Consider the following statements with respect to E20 Fuel:
Statement -I:
Ethanol blended petrol is environment friendly
Statement -II:
Ethanol is high in oxygen content, engines using ethanol blends combust fuel more thoroughly reducing vehicular emissions. Hence, this process will also help reduce the country’s carbon footprint.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement – I and Statement – II are correct and Statement – II is the correct explanation for Statement – I
- Both Statement – I and Statement – II are correct and Statement – II is not the correct explanation for Statement – I
- Statement – I is correct but Statement – II is incorrect
- Statement – I is incorrect but Statement – II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement – I and Statement – II are correct and Statement – II is the correct explanation for Statement – I
In News: Ethanol used in petrol now more from maize, damaged food grains than sugar
Explanation:
Ethanol blending fuel:
- An ethanol blend is defined as a blended motor fuel containing ethyl alcohol that is at least 99% pure, derived from agricultural products, and blended exclusively with petrol.
- E20 fuel, a 20–80 ethanol–petrol blend, aims to give the Indian government some relief from rising oil imports.
- E20 fuel, a popular ethanol and gasoline (petrol/diesel) blend, contains 80% gasoline and 20% gasoline by volume.
- For internal combustion engines, it is used in automobiles, trucks, and bicycles.
- Additionally, the leftover sugarcane and damaged plant grains are converted into ethanol, supporting the sugar industry by providing a new revenue stream. Currently maize has become one of the most important crop for extraction of ethanol.
- Benefits of ethanol blending:
- The auto fuels we commonly use are mainly derived from the slow geological process of fossilisation, which is why they are also known as fossil fuels.
- Ethanol in comparison is a biofuel, that is, it is primarily derived from processing organic matter (hence, it is a biofuel).
- In India, ethanol is largely derived from sugarcane via a fermentation process.
- Since it is a plant-based fuel, ethanol is considered renewable.
- Since ethanol is high in oxygen content, engines using ethanol blends combust fuel more thoroughly reducing vehicular emissions. Hence, this process will also help reduce the country’s carbon footprint. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct and it is the correct explanation.
- Mixing 20 percent ethanol in petrol can potentially reduce the auto fuel import bill by a yearly $4 billion, or Rs 30,000 crore.
- Another major benefit of ethanol blending is the extra income it gives to farmers. Ethanol is derived from sugarcane and also foodgrains. Hence, farmers can earn extra income by selling their surplus produce to ethanol blend manufacturers.
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6) The term “ Naegleria fowleri” best refers to which one of the following statements?
(a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
(b) Brain-eating amoeba found in freshwater environments
(c) Blood sucking parasite species in the soils.
(d) An ecological indicator of floral species in western ghats.
Answer: (b) “brain-eating amoeba found in freshwater environments
EXPLANATION:
In NEWS: What is Naegleria fowleri
o Naegleria fowleri, commonly known as the “brain-eating amoeba,” is a single-cell organism found in warm freshwater environments such as lakes, hot springs, and poorly maintained swimming pools.
o The amoeba enters the body through the nose and can cause a severe brain infection known as primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM).
o It then migrates through the olfactory nerve to the brain, leading to severe inflammation and destruction of brain tissue.
o Naegleria fowleri infection does not spread from person to person.
o While the human body is generally vulnerable to Naegleria fowleri, infections are extremely rare.
o Symptoms usually appear within a week of infection and include severe headache, fever, nausea, vomiting, stiff neck, confusion, seizures, and hallucinations.
o The infection progresses rapidly and can lead to coma and death. The chances of survival are unfortunately low.
Treatment:
o Treatment includes a combination of drugs.
o The drug Miltefosine has shown efficacy in killing Naegleria fowleri in laboratory settings and has been used successfully in the treatment of some survivors.
o Even with treatment, the chances of surviving Naegleria fowleri infection remain low with a recorded death rate of 97 per cent.
7) Consider the following statements:
1. Cheetahs primarily hunt at night to avoid competition with other predators
2. The snow leopard is the state animal of Ladakh and Himachal Pradesh.
3. Project Tiger is a wildlife conservation initiative in India that was launched in 1973.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
IN NEWS: Project Tiger will displace 5.5 lakh tribals: report
EXPLANATION:
‘India’s Tiger Reserves: Tribals Get Out, Tourists Welcome’ :
- Cheetahs primarily hunt during the day, especially during early morning and late afternoon. This diurnal hunting pattern helps them avoid larger nocturnal predators like lions and hyenas. Hence the statement I is incorrect.
- The snow leopard is the state animal of Ladakh and Himachal Pradesh.
- Project Tiger is a wildlife conservation initiative in India that was launched in 1973.
- Additional information
o Starting with only nine reserves covering 9,115 sq. km, the project marked a paradigm shift in wildlife conservation efforts.
o The first tiger census, in 1972, used the unreliable pug-mark method to count 1,827 tigers.
o As of 2022, the tiger population is estimated at 3,167-3,925, showcasing a growth rate of 6.1% per year.
o India is now home to three-quarters of the world’s tigers.
o In 1973, Project Tiger began with nine reserves covering 9,115 sq. km. By 2018, it had grown to 55 reserves in different states, totalling 78,135.956 sq. km or 2.38% of India’s land area.
8) Consider the following pairs :
Site Well known for
- Kumbhalgarh wildlife sanctuary : Rajasthan
- Nauradehi wildlife sanctuary : Madhya pradesh
- Ranipur national park : Uttar pradesh
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All three
IN NEWS: Project Tiger will displace 5.5 lakh tribals: report
EXPLANATION:
- Khumbhalgarh Wildlife Sanctuary: Khumbhalgarh Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in Rajsamand District of Rajasthan. It covers four hill and mountain ranges of the Aravallis – Kumbhalgarh Range; Sadri Range; Desuri Range and the Bokhada Range. Kumbhalgarh Wildlife Sanctuary can be explored either by jeep safari, trekking or by riding a horse.
- The wildlife sanctuary in Rajasthan is known for being the home to a variety of animals including some endangered species. The top predator in the sanctuary is leopard who preys on animals like sambhar, nilgai, chausingha (the four horned antelope), chinkara and Indian hare. There are a large number of birds to be sighted in Kumbhalgarh Wildlife Sanctuary, the most common one spotted here is the grey jungle fowl.
- Nauradehi wildlife sanctuary: Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary is the largest wildlife sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh. The entire Sanctuary is situated on a plateau. The Sanctuary is classified under Deccan peninsula biogeographic region and forms part of Ganga and Narmada basin.
- It acts as a corridor for Panna Tiger Reserve and Satpura Tiger Reserve while indirectly connecting Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve via Rani Durgawati Wildlife Sanctuary
- Ranipur national park: Ranipur Tiger Reserve located in Bundelkhand region of Uttar Pradesh is located at a just 150 km distance from Panna Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh. Tiger, leopard, bear, sambar, spotted deer, chinkara and many birds and reptiles are found in this reserve.
9) with reference to the Confederation of Indian Industry Consider the following statements:
1. It is a non-government, industry-led and industry-managed organisation.
2. It works to create and sustain an environment conducive to the development of India, partnering industry only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2
Answer: (a)1 only
IN NEWS: PM to address inaugural session of CII post Budget conference
EXPLANATION:
- CII is a non-government, not-for-profit, industry-led and industry-managed organization.
- It works to create and sustain an environment conducive to the development of India, partnering industry, Government and civil society, through advisory and consultative processes.
- Founded in 1895, it is headquartered in New delhi.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2038288
10) With reference to Goods and Services Tax Council (GST)Consider the following statements:
1. It is a non constitutional body in India.
2. It has been established to make decisions and recommendations to all issues related to the GST
3. Its decision is not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
IN NEWS: PM attends 9th Governing Council Meeting of NITI Aayog
EXPLANATION:
- The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council is a constitutional body in India.
- It has been established to make decisions and recommendations to the Union and State Governments on all issues related to the Goods and Services Tax (GST).
- It is an apex decision-making body responsible for formulating policies, rules, and regulations governing the GST system in the country.
- The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 paved the way for the introduction of a new tax regime, that is, Goods and Services Tax (GST) in the country.
- This Amendment Act inserted a new Article 279-A in the Constitution, which empowers the President to constitute a Goods and Services Tax Council or the Goods and Services Tax Council by an order.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2038009