CURRENT AFFAIRS – 20/09/24

1. Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

Q. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Pakistan was recently put on the FATF’s list of jurisdictions under increased monitoring, more commonly known as the “Grey List” 

Statement-II: Countries under grey list are considered a safe haven for supporting terror funding and money laundering.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation: 

In NEWS: India should increase court system capacity, says FATF 

India should aim to reduce the number of pending trials in money laundering cases by making major changes to increase the capacity of the court system, and potentially the capability of the Enforcement Directorate (ED), as per the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) mutual assessment report of India.

Financial Action Task Force (FATF): 

• The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is the global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog. 
• It sets international standards that aim to prevent these illegal activities and the harm they cause to society.
• FATF members include 39 countries, including the United States, India, China, Saudi Arabia, Britain, Germany, France, and the EU as such.
• India became a member of FATF in 2010.

FATF ‘grey list’ and ‘blacklist’:

• Black List: Countries known as Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) are put on the blacklist.
  • These countries support terror funding and money laundering activities. The FATF revises the blacklist regularly, adding or deleting entries.
  • Three countries North Korea, Iran, and Myanmar are currently in FATF’s blacklist.
• Grey List: Countries that are considered a safe haven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put on the FATF grey list. This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the blacklist.
  • Bulgaria, Burkina Faso, Cameroon, Croatia, Democratic Republic of Congo, Haiti, Kenya, Mali, Monaco, Mozambique, Namibia, Nigeria, Philippines, Senegal, South Africa, South, Sudan, Syria, Tanzania, Venezuela, Vietnam, and Yemen

• Pakistan was put on the Financial Action Task Force’s (FATF) list of jurisdictions under increased monitoring, more commonly known as the “Grey List,” in 2018.  In October 2022, Pakistan was removed from the FATF Grey List due to significant improvements in the overall anti-money laundering (AML) / counter-terrorist financing (CFT) framework. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

Consequences of being on the FATF blacklist:

• No financial aid is given to them by the International Monetary Fund (IMF), the World Bank, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) and the European Union (EU).
• They also face a number of international economic and financial restrictions and sanctions. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-should-increase-capacity-of-court-system-to-reduce-number-of-pending-trials-in-money-laundering-cases-fatf-report/article68660716.ece#:~:text=India%20should%20aim%20to%20reduce,mutual%20assessment%20report%20of%20India. 

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/fatf-on-india-effective-anti-money-laundering-system-low-prosecution-9577788/

2. White Revolution 2.0 

Q. Consider the following pairs :

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

Answer: (a) Only one pair

Explanation: 

In NEWS: White Revolution 2.0 to empower women, fight malnutrition: Amit Shah

White Revolution 2.0: 

• White Revolution 2.0 refers to the next phase in India’s dairy development, building on the success of the original White Revolution or Operation Flood, which made India the largest producer of milk in the world. 
• It aims to modernize the dairy industry and meet the growing demand for milk and milk products by focusing on quality, productivity, and global competitiveness.
• The programme focuses on four key areas –
  • empowering women farmers, 
  • enhancing local milk production, 
  • strengthening dairy infrastructure and 
  • boosting dairy exports.

Other important revolutions in agriculture:

India has many color-coded revolutions, including: 

• Green Revolution: This revolution in the 1960s increased food grain production through high-yielding seeds and advanced farming techniques. 
• White Revolution: This revolution improved milk and dairy production. Hence pair 1 is correct.
• Yellow Revolution: This revolution increased oilseed production. 
• Blue Revolution: This revolution increased fish production through aquaculture. 
• Golden Revolution: This revolution from 1991 to 2003 increased horticultural production and honey production. Hence pair 2 is incorrect.
• Silver Revolution: This revolution increased egg production through medical science and more protein-rich food for hens. Hence pair 3 is incorrect.
• Brown Revolution: This revolution focused on growing coffee, leather, and cocoa in a socially responsible and environmentally friendly way. 
• Grey Revolution: This revolution aimed to increase fertilizer production and sustainable wool production. 
• Red Revolution: This revolution increased meat and tomato production. 
• Pink Revolution: Drugs & Pharmaceuticals. Hence pair 4 is incorrect.
• Black Revolution: This revolution increased petroleum output by blending ethanol with gasoline to create biodiesel.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/white-revolution-20-to-empower-women-amit-shah/article68661246.ece 

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/amit-shah-unveils-white-revolution-2-0-promises-full-budgetary-support-9577809/

3. Brain-eating amoeba

Q. With reference to ‘Brain-eating amoeba’, consider the following statements.

1. It is capable of behaving as both an amoeba and a flagellate.
2. It is typically found in warm fresh water bodies.
3. The fatality rate for an infected person is higher than 97% even with treatment.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation: 

In NEWS: How Kerala reduced mortality from amoebic meningoencephalitis 

Brain-eating amoeba (Naegleria fowleri):

• Naegleria fowleri, also known as the brain-eating amoeba, is a species of the genus Naegleria. It belongs to the phylum Percolozoa and is classified as an amoeboflagellate excavate, an organism capable of behaving as both an amoeba and a flagellate. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• This free-living microorganism primarily feeds on bacteria but can become pathogenic in humans, causing an extremely rare, sudden, severe, and almost always fatal brain infection known as naegleriasis or primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM).
• It is typically found in warm freshwater bodies such as lakes, rivers, hot springs, warm water discharge from industrial or power plants, geothermal well water, and poorly maintained or minimally chlorinated swimming pools with residual chlorine levels under 0.5 g/m3, water heaters, soil, and pipes connected to tap water. It can exist in either an amoeboid or temporary flagellate stage. Hence statement 2 is correct.

The signs and symptoms of primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) come on suddenly and are severe at the start, including:

• High fever.
• Very painful headache.
• Nausea and vomiting.
• Trembling.
• Symptoms like those of meningitis, including a stiff neck and extreme sensitivity to light (photophobia).
• Mental confusion.
• Coma.
• The fatality rate is higher than 97% even with treatment. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/how-kerala-reduced-mortality-from-amoebic-meningoencephalitis/article68651950.ece#:~:text=The%20State%20set%20up%20a,Miltefosin%20into%20the%20antibiotic%20cocktail. 

4. Retreating monsoon 

Q. Consider the following statements.

1. Cessation of rainfall activity over the area for continuous 5 days. 
2. Establishment of anticyclone in low troposphere levels over the region. 
3. Considerable reduction in moisture content.

How many of the above statements are the synoptic features of retreating monsoon?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Monsoon withdrawal from Northwest parts likely from Sept 23: IMD 

“Conditions are likely to become favourable for the withdrawal of southwest monsoon from some parts of northwest India from September 23,” the Met department said.

Withdrawal of SW Monsoon:

• The southwest monsoon makes its onset over Kerala by June 1 and covers the entire country by July 8. 
• It starts retreating from northwest India around September 17, withdrawing entirely by October 15.

The following major synoptic features are considered for the first withdrawal from the western parts of NW India.

1. Cessation of rainfall activity over the area for continuous 5 days.
2. Establishment of anticyclone in the lower troposphere (850 hPa and below)
3. Considerable reduction in moisture content as inferred from satellite water vapour imageries and tephigrams. Hence all the statements are correct.

The normal date for monsoon to begin withdrawal from extreme northwest India regions is September 15. But due to successive weather systems developed in recent days, the monsoon has been active throughout September. Uttarakhand, Delhi, parts of Gangetic West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh and neighbourhood areas have benefitted from widespread rainfall this week.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/monsoon-withdrawal-from-northwest-parts-likely-from-sept-23-imd-9577826/ 

5. World Food India 2024

Q. With reference to ‘World Food India 2024’, consider the following statements.

1. It aims to promote India as a global food hub and encourage investments in the food processing sector.
2. The Ministry of Food Processing Industries is the nodal agency for World Food India 2024.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: 

In NEWS: World Food India 2024 | PM Modi: Wide-ranging reforms undertaken in food-processing sector in last 10 years 

• PM Modi at World Food India 2024 said, “During the last 10 years, we have introduced wide-ranging reforms to transform the food processing sector. 
• Through multidimensional initiatives such as
  • 100% FDI in food processing, 
  • Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana, 
  • formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises, 
  • Production Linked Incentive scheme for food-processing industries; 
• It aims to create a strong ecosystem of modern infrastructure, robust supply chains and employment generation across the country.”

About WFI 2024: 

• Recognizing the potential of the food processing sector in transforming India as the food basket of the world, the Ministry of Food Processing Industries, Government of India has adopted measures to channelize investments in food processing subsegments. Hence, Both the statements are correct.
• This includes backward linkages, food processing equipment, processing related R&D, cold chain storage solutions, start-ups, logistic & retail chains, encompassing the entire food processing value chain.
• With the objective of introducing the world to rich Indian food culture as well as promoting investments in the diverse food processing sector of the country, the Ministry of Food Processing Industries launched the first edition of World Food India in 2017. 
• In view of celebrating 2023 as the International Year of Millets and to bring the global food processing industry together, the Ministry of Food Processing Industries organized the second edition World Food India in 2023. This year World Food India 2024 will be organized from 19th to 22nd September 2024.
• WFI aligns with the government’s initiatives such as Aatmanirbhar Bharat and Make in India.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/world-food-india-2024-pm-modi-wide-ranging-reforms-undertaken-in-food-processing-sector-in-last-10-years-9577770/ 

6. Amur falcon

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. The Amur Falcon is the longest sea crossing bird among raptors.
2. It is a protected species under the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 and is listed under Schedule IV of the act.
3. Hunting or possessing the meat of an Amur Falcon is a crime and can result in up to three years in prison or a fine of up to Rs 5,000.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Ahead of Amur falcon’s arrival, Manipur district bans their hunting 

• Poaching and destruction of wildlife (including migratory birds Amur falcon) in any way for food or possession or otherwise is a punishable offence under Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, sections 50 and 51.

The Amur Falcon:

• The Amur Falcon is a fascinating migratory raptor. 
• Every year, the small, resilient birds make the daring voyage from breeding grounds in Russia and China to winter in southern Africa. 
• It is supposed that the falcons cross the Arabian Sea during their migration, but much is still unknown about the patterns of their estimated 22,000 km migration  (longest sea crossing of any raptor). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Because of the long journey, stopover sites are important for Amur Falcons to maintain stamina. In 2012 an estimated 120,000 to 140,000 birds were trapped in nets and killed while passing through a remote part of the Indian Nagaland region. 
• This prompted a swift response from the Indian Government and the Nagaland Forest Department, which used patrols and education initiatives for villagers as a means to halt trapping. In 2013, no falcons were trapped.

Main Threats:

• Over harvesting from trapping: The Amur Falcon exemplifies the threat of illegal trapping and killing during migration, which harms countless bird species each year.
• Habitat loss from grassland degradation: These birds are prone to habitat loss from agricultural practices and land reclamation.

Protection Status: 

• IUCN Red List Status: Least Concern
• It is a protected species under the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 and is listed in Schedule IV of the act. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Hunting or possessing the meat of an Amur Falcon is a crime and can result in up to three years in prison or a fine of up to Rs 5,000. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/north-east-india/manipur/ahead-of-amur-falcons-arrival-manipur-district-bans-their-hunting-9577836/ 

7.  Mahadayi project

Q. Consider the following pairs: 

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Mahadayi project: Wildlife board may revisit decision on tiger reserve land amid push by Karnataka 

• It aims to alleviate the chronic water scarcity in three districts of north Karnataka.
• The project intends to provide drinking water to Karnataka’s arid districts by diverting water from the Mahadayi river via the Kalasa-Banduri canal.
• The sharing of Mahadayi river water has long been a contentious issue between Karnataka, Goa, and Maharashtra. 
• Although the central government approved the Mahadayi project in 2022, it requires over 26 hectares of forest land, including the critical 10.68 hectares in the tiger reserves. 
• The NBWL, responsible for wildlife protection, withheld permission over concerns about the impact on the tiger corridor and other ecological issues.
• A National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) committee recently inspected the Kali and Sahyadri reserves and presented their findings at the last NBWL meeting. 
• The board recognised that the project is still awaiting a decision from the SC and expressed concern that any premature decision on the tiger reserve land could interfere with the judicial process.

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/water/mahadayi-project-wildlife-board-may-revisit-decision-on-tiger-reserve-land-amid-push-by-karnataka 

8. Harappan civilisation

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Harappan civilisation is considered as the Bronze Age civilisation which was the first site to be discovered in Pakistan.
2. The civilisation has town planners, epigraphists, metallurgists, hydrologists, specialists in ceramics, mathematicians, and astronomers.
3. The Harappans excelled in town planning, harvesting water, building reservoirs, stadia, warehouses, and underground sullage systems.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Harappan civilisation: enigma remains even after 100 years of exploration.

• Bronze Age civilisation is called the Harappan civilisation, named after Harappa, now in Pakistan, which was the first site to be discovered in the area. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• For the past 100 years, the Harappan civilisation has mesmerised and baffled town planners, epigraphists, metallurgists, hydrologists, specialists in ceramics, mathematicians, astronomers, and others. Its enigmas have intrigued them. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• At the apogee of its prosperity, it was a “technological powerhouse” that excelled in town planning, harvesting water, building reservoirs, stadia, warehouses, underground sullage systems, massive fortification walls and building seafaring boats, fabricating bronze and copper artefacts, and in making beads, exquisite painted pottery, and terracotta products. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Its craftsman made seals of steatite and carved them with realistic human and animal motifs and a script within a cramped space of two cm by 1.5 cm.
• The Harappan civilisation can be divided into an early phase (3200 BC to 2600 BC), the mature period (2600 BC to 1900 BC), and the late phase (1900 BC to 1500 BC), when it decayed and collapsed. 
• Mohenjo-daro, Harappa, and Ganweriwala, all now in Pakistan, and Rakhigarhi and Dholavira, both in India, are the five of the biggest Harappan sites out of nearly 2,000 in the civilisational area, which is spread over 1.5 million sq.km in India, Pakistan, and Afghanistan. 
• There are 1,500 sites in northwestern India, including in Gujarat, Haryana, Jammu and Kashmir, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh. The village of Daimabad on the banks of the Godavari river in Maharashtra is the southernmost outpost of the Harappan civilisation. 
• There are about 500 sites in Pakistan, and a few in Afghanistan. The civilisation burgeoned on the banks of the Indus and Saraswati rivers, the latter of which is believed to have dried up around 1900 BC.

Source: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/100125/OPS/GAMDBP3H9.1+G5VDBRHQS.1.html 

9. PM-JI-VAN

Q. With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Jaiv Indhan Vatavaran Anukool Fasal Awashesh Nivaran (PM-JI-VAN) Yojana’, consider the following statements:

1. The scheme aims to provide remunerative income to farmers for their agricultural residue and address environmental pollution. 
2. It aims to reach a 20% ethanol blending target by the end of the 2025-26.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Modified scheme will provide remunerative income to farmers for  agro residue 

Pradhan Mantri Jaiv Indhan Vatavaran Anukool Fasal Awashesh Nivaran (PM-JI-VAN) Yojana: 

• The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas has taken several key decisions during the first 100 days of the third term of the NDA government. 
• Sources in the Ministry said that recently the government approved the modified Pradhan Mantri Jaiv Indhan Vatavaran Anukool Fasal Awashesh Nivaran (PM-JI-VAN) Yojana. 
• The scheme aims to provide remunerative income to farmers for their agricultural residue and address environmental pollution. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• They added that with the amendments in the scheme, financial assistance is available for advanced biofuels, and preference will be given to new technologies and innovation in project proposals. 
• The scheme also helps create local employment opportunities and contributes to India’s energy security and self-reliance.
• It has supported the establishment of India’s first 2G ethanol plant by Indian Oil Corporation at Panipat.
• The amount of ethanol blended with petrol has surged to over 500 crore liters in 2022-23, with a current blending rate exceeding 15%. 
• The government aims to reach a 20% ethanol blending target by the end of the 2025-26. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It aligns with net-zero greenhouse gas emissions by 2070 and supports the Make in India initiative.

Generation of Biofuels: 

• 1st generation:  Derived from edible materials creating food security issues. 
• 2nd generation:  From non-edible materials like agricultural, forest residues and crops grown for biofuel purposes. 
• 3rd generation:  From aquatic biomass such as algae.
• 4th generation:  From Engineered plants and microorganisms. 

Source: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/modified-scheme-aims-to-provide-remunerative-income-to-farmers-for-agro-residue/ 

10. With reference to the Indus River system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of them which joins the Indus direct. Among the following which is one is such river that joins the Indus direct? (UPSC PYQ 2021) 

(a) Chenab

(b) Jhelum

(c) Ravi

(d) Sutlej

Answer: (d) Sutlej