1. The ‘World Energy Outlook’ is an annual flagship report of
(a) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
(b) International Energy Agency (IEA)
(c) World Energy Council (WEC)
(d) Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
Answer: (b) International Energy Agency (IEA)
Explanation:
In NEWS: World Energy Outlook 2025: IEA warns of mounting security risks in ‘Age of Electricity’
World Energy Outlook:
- It is the International Energy Agency (IEA)’s annual flagship report providing medium‑ to long‑term projections of global energy supply, demand, investment, trade and emissions. Hence option (b) is correct.
- It uses a scenario‑based approach, comparing different futures such as: current policy settings, announced pledges, and pathways aligned with climate objectives (e.g., net‑zero).
- It covers the entire energy system—fossil fuels, renewables, electricity, end‑use sectors, infrastructure, and regional dynamics.
World Energy Outlook 2025:
- The world is entering an “Age of Electricity”, with electricity demand growing faster than overall energy use.
- Advanced economies are increasingly driving this demand, due in part to data centres and AI facilities.
- Critical minerals pose a new risk: for 19 out of 20 key energy-related minerals, a single country dominates refining, with about 70% market share on average.
- Supply chain vulnerabilities are rising due to export controls and geopolitical tensions.
- While oil and gas supply seems adequate in the near term, markets remain exposed to geopolitical risks, and weaker climate policies may reduce supply buffers.
- About 730 million people still lack electricity, and nearly 2 billion rely on polluting cooking fuels. Meeting electricity access by 2035 and clean cooking by 2040 is possible but not guaranteed.
- Even with rapid emissions reductions, global warming above 1.5°C remains likely.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. Consider the following statements: 1. “The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. 2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. 3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. 4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. 5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the ‘Under2 Coalition’. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 |
2. With reference to the Global Climate Risk Index, which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. The Global Climate Risk Index is an annual report published by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
II. Losses as a percentage of GDP is one of the indicators of the index.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (b) II only
Explanation:
In NEWS: India Improves Its Rank in Global Climate Risk Index 2025
Global Climate Risk Index (CRI)?
- The Global Climate Risk Index is an annual report published by Germanwatch, a Germany-based environmental think tank. Hence statement I is incorrect.
- It analyses and ranks countries according to how severely they have been affected by extreme weather events such as storms, floods, heatwaves, droughts, and cyclones.
Parameters Used
- Number of deaths due to extreme weather events.
- Deaths per 100,000 inhabitants.
- Economic losses (in US dollars).
- Losses as a percentage of GDP. Hence statement II is correct.
- A lower rank (closer to 1) means the country was more severely affected.
India’s Performance in Global Climate Risk Index 2025
Long-Term Ranking (1993–2022):
- India is ranked 6th most affected country globally.
- This means India has been among the top 10 most climate-vulnerable nations for nearly three decades.
Recent-Year Ranking (for 2022–2024 period):
- For 2024 alone, India’s rank improved to around 15th, showing moderate improvement in disaster preparedness and resilience.
- For the period 1995–2024, India stands at 9th, indicating continued exposure to extreme weather risks.
Impacts:
- Human Losses: Over 80,000 lives lost due to extreme weather events such as cyclones, floods, and heatwaves.
- Economic Losses: Estimated losses of about US$170–180 billion during the assessment period.
- Major Disasters: Cyclones (Amphan, Tauktae, Yaas), extreme rainfall, flash floods, and prolonged heatwaves have been key contributors.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2018) Q. “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by (a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (b) The UNEP Secretariat (c) The UNFCCC Secretariat (d) The World Meteorological Organisation |
Source: https://currentaffairs.adda247.com/india-improves-its-rank-in-global-climate-risk-index-2025/
3. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the “Digital Gold” in the Indian context?
1. It is a government-issued electronic bond denominated in gold value.
2. It represents a fractional ownership of physical gold held by a private platform on behalf of the investor.
3. It is a SEBI-regulated gold-backed mutual fund listed on stock exchanges.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Sebi warns against digital gold: What is it and the risks involved
Digital Gold:
- Digital gold is an online investment product allowing investors to buy gold in small quantities, stored in vaults by service providers. Ownership is represented digitally, not physically.
- Digital gold represents fractional ownership of physical gold stored in secure vaults by private platforms (not government or SEBI-regulated entities). Hence, Statement 2 is correct
Regulatory Gap: SEBI has warned that digital gold is not a “security” or a “commodity derivative”, hence lies outside SEBI’s regulatory ambit, leaving investors unprotected under existing laws.
Risks:
- Counter-party default (provider or custodian failure)
- Absence of legal framework for ownership & redemption
- Misleading marketing claims of “safe” or “regulated” product
SEBI Advisory (2024–25):
- SEBI cautioned investors against unregulated digital gold platforms and advised them to prefer regulated alternatives like Gold ETFs, Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs), or Electronic Gold Receipts (EGRs).
Note:
- The government-issued electronic bond linked to gold is the Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB), not “digital gold.” Hence, Statement 1 is Incorrect
- Gold-backed mutual funds or Gold ETFs are SEBI-regulated instruments, but digital gold is not. Hence, Statement 3 is Incorrect
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. With reference to Non-Fungible Token (NFTs), consider the following statements: 1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets. 2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. 3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/sebi-warns-against-digital-gold-risks-involved-10358517/
4. Which among the following statements correctly describes the aim of Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT)?
(a) Funding international green hydrogen projects exclusively
(b) Providing financial incentives for the domestic manufacturing of electrolysers
(c) Subsidizing fossil fuel imports to reduce costs for hydrogen production
(d) Financing the construction of ports for hydrogen export
Answer: (b) Providing financial incentives for the domestic manufacturing of electrolysers
Explanation:
In NEWS: Unlocking India’s Green Hydrogen Production Potential
Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT):
Launched: As part of National Green Hydrogen Mission in 2023
Objective: To accelerate the domestic production and use of green hydrogen by supporting manufacturing of key components, primarily electrolysers, and creating an enabling ecosystem for green hydrogen. Hence option (b) is correct.
Key Features
- Total outlay: ₹17,490 crore (up to FY2029-30)
- Provides subsidies/incentives for manufacturing of electrolyzers and other critical equipment required for green hydrogen production.
Focus Areas:
- Manufacturing of electrolysers
- Promoting domestic green hydrogen production
- Reducing dependence on imported hydrogen equipment
- Supporting scaling-up and commercialization of green hydrogen technologies
Strategic Goals:
- Build a domestic supply chain for hydrogen production and equipment
- Encourage private sector participation in green hydrogen production
- Reduce costs of green hydrogen over time
- Enhance industrial competitiveness in emerging hydrogen markets
Outcomes & Progress (as per 2025)
- Encourages private investment and public-private partnerships in green hydrogen manufacturing.
- Supports India’s goal of 125 GW of renewable energy dedicated to hydrogen production by 2030.
- Directly linked with pilot projects and industrial adoption across fertilizer, steel, and refinery sectors.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2023) Q. Consider the following heavy industries: 1. Fertilizer plants 2. Oil refineries 3. Steel plants Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2189126
5. The Rare Earth Hypothesis, often cited in astrobiological discussions, primarily addresses which of the following ideas?
(a) That planets with Earth-like geological and astronomical conditions enabling complex, multicellular life are extremely uncommon in the universe.
(b) That the availability of rare earth minerals determines a planet’s potential to sustain technological civilizations.
(c) That the abundance of heavy elements in a planet’s crust governs its biological evolution and mineral resource distribution.
(d) That metallicity gradients in galaxies limit the formation of Earth-like planets in habitable zones.
Answer: (a) That planets with Earth-like geological and astronomical conditions enabling complex, multicellular life are extremely uncommon in the universe.
Explanation:
In NEWS: What’s the status of the rare earth hypothesis?
Rare Earth Hypothesis:
- The Rare Earth Hypothesis suggests that while simple microbial life may be common in the universe, the emergence of complex and intelligent life is extremely rare. Hence, option (a) is correct
- It was proposed by Peter Ward (paleontologist) and Donald Brownlee (astronomer) in their 2000 book “Rare Earth: Why Complex Life is Uncommon in the Universe.”
- The hypothesis challenges the Copernican Principle (Principle of Mediocrity), which assumes Earth and life on it are not special or unique.
- It argues that Earth-like conditions suitable for complex life depend on a rare combination of astronomical, geological, and biological factors.
- Key conditions required for complex life, according to the hypothesis, include:
- A stable star of the right type (not too hot or short-lived).
- A planet in the habitable zone, where liquid water can exist.
- A large moon to stabilize Earth’s axial tilt and climate.
- A magnetic field to protect the atmosphere from solar radiation.
- Plate tectonics to recycle nutrients and regulate carbon dioxide.
- Presence of a Jupiter-like giant planet to shield Earth from frequent asteroid impacts.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2015) Q. The term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen news in the context of (a) the limits of habitable zone above the surface of the Earth (b) regions inside the Earth where shale gas is available (c) search for the Earth-like planets in outer space (d) search for meteorites containing precious metals |
6. Consider the following pairs:
| S.no | Greenhouse Gas (GHG) | Sources of emission |
| 1. | Carbon dioxide (CO₂) | Burning of fossil fuels, deforestation, cement production |
| 2. | Methane (CH₄) | Agriculture , landfills, fossil fuel extraction |
| 3. | Nitrous oxide (N₂O) | Fertilizer use, industrial activities, biomass burning |
| 4. | Fluorinated gases (HFCs, PFCs, SF₆, NF₃) | Refrigeration, air-conditioning, industrial processes |
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
Answer: (d) All four pairs
Explanation:
In NEWS: India recorded the highest greenhouse gas emissions for 2024
Greenhouse Gas (GHG) Emissions:
- Greenhouse gases (GHGs) are gases in the Earth’s atmosphere that trap heat by absorbing and re-emitting infrared radiation.
- This process leads to the greenhouse effect, which warms the Earth’s surface and maintains a temperature suitable for life.
- However, excessive GHG emissions cause global warming and climate change.
Major Greenhouse Gases
| Gas | Share in Global Warming Potential (approx.) | Main Sources | Atmospheric Lifetime |
| Carbon dioxide (CO₂) | ~74% | Burning of fossil fuels, deforestation, cement production | 100–200 years |
| Methane (CH₄) | ~17% | Agriculture (rice paddies, livestock), landfills, fossil fuel extraction | 12 years |
| Nitrous oxide (N₂O) | ~6% | Fertilizer use, industrial activities, biomass burning | 114 years |
| Fluorinated gases (HFCs, PFCs, SF₆, NF₃) | ~3% | Refrigeration, air-conditioning, industrial processes | Hundreds to thousands of years |
| Water vapour (H₂O) | Variable | Natural evaporation and transpiration | Short-lived (few days) |
Hence, all four pairs are correct.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2019) Q. Consider the following: 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Methane 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue? (a ) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
7. Who among the following formed the first Indian National Army (INA) in 1942 with support from the Japanese Army?
(a) Rash Behari Bose
(b) Captain Mohan Singh
(c) Subhas Chandra Bose
(d) Major Fujiwara Iwaichi
Answer: (b) Captain Mohan Singh
Explanation:
In NEWS: INA not founded by Subhas Bose, he took up the reins only later, claims new book
Formation of the First INA (1942)
- After Japan’s victories in Malaya and Singapore (1942), around 70,000 Indian soldiers of the British Indian Army were taken as Prisoners of War (POWs).
- Captain Mohan Singh of the 14th Punjab Regiment emerged as a leader among these POWs. Hence option (b) is correct.
- With Japanese encouragement, he organized the first Indian National Army (INA) in 1942, aiming to:
- Liberate India from British rule with Japanese assistance.
- Build an armed force of Indians abroad.
However, differences with Japanese officers over control and treatment of Indian soldiers led to the disbandment of this first INA by the end of 1942.
Subhas Chandra Bose and the Second INA (1943–45)
- Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose arrived in Singapore in July 1943.
- He reorganized the INA into a disciplined, nationalist army under the slogan “Chalo Dilli” (March to Delhi).
- He established the Provisional Government of Free India (Azad Hind Government) in October 1943, recognized by several Axis powers (Japan, Germany, Italy).
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2021) Q. In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon are remembered as (a) Leaders of Swadeshi and Boycott Movement (b) Members of the Interim Government in 1946 (c) Members of the Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly (d) Officers of the Indian National Army |
8. With reference to the Great Indian Bustard, which of the following statements are correct?
1. The Great Indian Bustard is a flagship species and acts as a barometer of grassland health.
2. Due to the species’ smaller population size, the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has categorised GIBs as critically endangered
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: SC judge: imported ideas may not save endangered species
The Great Indian Bustard (GIB)
- The Great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps) is one of the largest and heaviest flying birds in the world, endemic to the Indian subcontinent.
- It is a flagship species of India’s grasslands, symbolizing the health and sustainability of these fragile ecosystems. Hence statement 1 is correct.
| Feature | Details |
| Habitat | Arid and semi-arid grasslands; dry plains of western India (esp. Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh). |
| Behavior | Diurnal (active during daytime); terrestrial — prefers walking and running over flying. |
| Diet | Omnivorous — feeds on grass seeds, insects, small reptiles (lizards), and berries. |
| Breeding | Lays one egg per season; incubation by the female; slow breeding rate hampers recovery. |
| Status | State bird of Rajasthan (largest remaining population). Hence statement 2 is correct. |
| Ecological Role | Flagship species and barometer of grassland health. |
Other Bustard Species Found in India
1. Great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps) — endemic, largest species.
2. Lesser Florican (Sypheotides indicus) — smallest and highly endangered.
3. Bengal Florican (Houbaropsis bengalensis) — seen in Assam, UP, and Nepal Terai.
4. MacQueen’s Bustard (Chlamydotis macqueenii) — migratory, from Central Asia to western India.
Conservation Status
| Convention/Act | Status |
| IUCN Red List | Critically Endangered |
| Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 | Schedule I |
| CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species) | Appendix I |
| CMS (Convention on Migratory Species) | Appendix I |
Conservation Efforts
1. National-Level Measures
- Project Great Indian Bustard (2015): Implemented under the Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats (IDWH) scheme of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). Focus on habitat conservation, breeding, and reducing mortality.
- Supreme Court Directive (2021): Ordered undergrounding of power transmission lines in priority GIB habitats in Rajasthan and Gujarat to prevent electrocution.
- Breeding and Hatchery Programs:
- Initiated at Sam and Sorsan (Rajasthan) under the Great Indian Bustard Captive Breeding Programme.
- First successful artificial insemination (Oct 2024) produced chick “Arambh” — a breakthrough for genetic diversity.
- Eco-sensitive Zones & Protected Areas:
- Desert National Park (Rajasthan) – main habitat.
- Kutch Bustard Sanctuary (Gujarat)
- Nannaj (Maharashtra)
- Karera (Madhya Pradesh)
- Rollapadu (Andhra Pradesh)
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2020) Q. With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct? 1. It is spread over two districts. 2. There is no human habitation inside the Park. 3. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
9. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: National Education Day is celebrated every year on 11th November across India.
Statement-II: It commemorates the birth anniversary of Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, who served as independent India’s first Education Minister and laid the foundation for institutions like IITs and UGC.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Explanation:
In NEWS: National Education Day 2025 Today: Why is it celebrated on Nov 11? History and significance
National Education Day 2025
- Date of observance: 11 November every year
- Purpose: Commemorate the birth anniversary of Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, India’s first Education Minister.
- Official declaration: 2008, by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (now Ministry of Education).
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad – Legacy
- Born: 1888
- Roles: Freedom fighter, scholar, first Education Minister of independent India (1947–1958)
- Vision: Education must be inclusive, promote critical thinking, civic responsibility, and confidence, not just academic achievement.
Contributions:
- Established key institutions: Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs), University Grants Commission (UGC), Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
- Laid the foundation of India’s modern educational and research infrastructure
Hence, Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2021) Q. Consider the following statements: 1. 21st February is declared to be the International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. 2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
10. With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets? (2024)
1. Nayaputta
2. Shakyamuni
3. Tathagata
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Nayaputta: This epithet is associated with Mahavira, the founder of Jainism, not Gautama Buddha. It means “son of Naya” or “son of the Nata clan”. Hence 1 is incorrect.
- Shakyamuni: This epithet refers to Gautama Buddha as the “Sage of the Shakyas,” highlighting his lineage from the Shakya clan. Hence 2 is correct.
- Tathagata: This translates to “Thus Gone” or “Thus Come,” signifying his attainment of enlightenment. Hence 3 is correct.