1. The Speaker’s power on the disqualification of an MLA
Q. Consider the following statements:
- If a nominated MLA joins a political party after six months of being nominated, he/she may be disqualified.
- The Speaker is the final authority on deciding whether an MLA should be disqualified under the Anti-Defection Law.
- The Speaker’s decisions on disqualification are not subject to judicial review.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation:
In NEWS: Hear plea to disqualify BRS MLAs within four weeks: HC
Anti-Defection Law (Tenth Schedule):
- The Anti-Defection Law lays down grounds for disqualification of MLAs and MPs on the basis of defection. Under this, an MLA can be disqualified if:
- They voluntarily give up the membership of the party they were elected from.
- They vote or abstain from voting in the legislature contrary to the party’s direction (without prior permission).
- They join another political party after being elected.
- Independent MLAs: If an independent MLA joins a political party after the election, they can also face disqualification.
- Nominated MLAs: If a nominated MLA joins a party after six months of being nominated, they may also be disqualified. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Role of the Speaker:
- The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly is the final authority on deciding whether an MLA should be disqualified under the Anti-Defection Law. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The decision of disqualification must be based on a complaint filed by any member of the legislature or the concerned political party.
- The Speaker’s decision is considered binding, but there have been cases where it has been challenged in courts.
Judicial Scrutiny:
- Although the Speaker’s decision is usually final, it can be subject to judicial review. The Supreme Court of India has held that the Speaker’s decisions on disqualification can be challenged in the courts if it is alleged that the decision is mala fide, perverse, or taken without following proper procedures. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- In Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu (1992), the Supreme Court ruled that while the Speaker’s decisions are not entirely beyond judicial scrutiny, courts can intervene after the decision is made, particularly on grounds of bias or violation of constitutional principles.
Source: https://epaper.thehindu.com/reader
https://loksabhadocs.nic.in/Refinput/New_Reference_Notes/English/15072022_111659_1021205175.pdf
2. Anticipatory bail
Q. With reference to Anticipatory bail, consider the following statements.
- It is a ‘Pre-Arrest Bail’ because it can be sought even before the individual is formally arrested by the police.
- Granting anticipatory bail is at the court’s discretion and is not an absolute right of the individual.
- It is exclusively issued by the Sessions Court and High Court.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All three
In NEWS: Ranjith gets anticipatory bail in sexual abuse case
Explanation:
- Bail is the temporary release of an accused in a criminal case which is pending the court’s judgement. In India, there are typically three forms of bail:
- Regular Bail: It is granted to an individual under arrest or in police custody.
- Interim Bail: This bail is issued for a short period of time and is issued before the hearing for regular bail.
- Anticipatory Bail: It is a legal provision which enables an accused individual to seek bail before the actual arrest.
Anticipatory Bail:
- Anticipatory Bail is a legal provision allowing an individual anticipating arrest for a non-bailable offence to request bail in advance.
- This type of bail is also termed as Pre-Arrest Bail because it can be sought even before the individual is formally arrested by the police. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It is granted under section 438 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC), 1973 (Now replaced by Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita).
- It is exclusively issued by the Sessions Court and High Court. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Conditions of Anticipatory Bail:
- The individual seeking anticipatory bail must be arrested for a non-bailable offense.
- They should always be available for interrogation by the investigating officer.
- The applicant must provide reasons for seeking pre-arrest bail, along with supporting evidence.
- The Anticipatory Bail is typically sought by those who feel falsely implicated or threatened with unjust charges that could lead to arrest.
- The court may impose a monetary bond, payable if the applicant fails to appear in court or violates set conditions.
- The Anticipatory bail can be granted for a limited period, with the requirement to surrender to custody afterward.
- Granting anticipatory bail is at the court’s discretion and is not an absolute right of the individual. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The court considers factors like the nature of the offense, gravity, the accused’s background, and may impose specific conditions while granting bail.
- The Court may also impose conditions like surrendering the passport, refraining from leaving the country, or regular reporting to the police station.
- The Anticipatory bail may be cancelled if directed by a High Court or Sessions Court for the arrest of the person.
3. India – UAE pact for civil nuclear cooperation
Q. Consider the following countries:
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. USA
5. UAE
6. Germany
Which of the above countries have signed civil nuclear agreements with India?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
Answer: (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
Explanation:
In NEWS: India, UAE ink pact for civil nuclear cooperation
India – UAE pact for civil nuclear cooperation:
- India and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for civil nuclear cooperation.
- The deal between the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) and the ENEC (Emirates Nuclear Energy Company)-led Barakah Nuclear Power Plant Operations and Maintenance took place during the Indian visit of Sheikh Khalid bin Mohamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan, the Crown Prince of Abu Dhabi.
- Both countries had agreed to cooperate in “peaceful use of nuclear energy”, including in areas of “safety, health, agriculture, and science and technology.”
- The NPCIL-ENEC agreement is part of the UAE’s policy of expanding investments into the nuclear energy sector.
India has signed civil nuclear agreements with several countries, including:
- India has signed civil nuclear cooperation agreements with France, the United States, Russia, Namibia, Canada, Argentina, Kazakhstan, Republic of Korea, Czech Republic, Australia, Sri Lanka and the United Kingdom.
- A Memorandum of Understanding on civil nuclear cooperation has also been signed with Mongolia.
4. ‘Dancing Girls’ Ginger Species in India
Q. “Dancing girls, Weeping goldsmith, Singapore gold, Ruby queen” sometimes seen in News are
- terracotta figurines
- precious stones
- Insects
- Ornamental plants
Answer: (d) Ornamental plants
Explanation:
In NEWS: Ginger family gets six new ‘dancing’ members from India
- Two scientists from the Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER) in Bhopal recorded six new species in the genus Globba belonging to the ginger (Zingiberaceae) family
- These species are Globba corniculata, Globba paschimbengalensis, Globba polymorpha, Globba tyrnaensis, Globba janakiae, and Globba yadaviana. The first three were recorded from West Bengal’s Darjeeling district, the next two from Meghalaya, and the last from Mizoram.
- A horn-shaped structure at the base of the labellum – the central part of the flower in gingers that acts as a landing platform for pollinators – gave Globba corniculata its name while Globba paschimbengalensis was named after West Bengal.
- Zingiberaceae is the largest family within the order Zingiberales comprising at least 114 genera and 4,022 species. Members of Zingiberaceae are perennial, rhizomatous herbs that usually grow in moist shady places of the tropical regions.
- Species within the Globba genus are popular as ornamental plants, often known as dancing girls, weeping goldsmith, snowball, Singapore gold, white dragon, and ruby queen – all of which highlight attractive and delicate flowers. Hence option (d) is correct.
5. Laughing Frog
Q. Unlike any other frog, the Laughing Frog, an enchanting amphibian doesn’t croak — it laughs. It resembles joyous laughter, echoing through the trees and adding an unexpected touch of humor to the landscape. Its emerald green body glimmers under the sunlight as it perches on leaves, blending perfectly into its tree-bound environment. The above mentioned frog species is recently recognised in which among the following countries?
- Brazil
- Australia
- Indonesia
- India
Answer: (b) Australia
Explanation:
In NEWS: Laughing Frog Among 750 New Species Recognised in Australia.
- The new additions to the Australian National Species List 2023 include a laughing frog, Litoria ridibunda, which laughs instead of croaking. Hence option (b) is correct.
- The Laughing Frog has taken the spotlight with its unique characteristics.
- Also known as Litoria ridibunda, this tree frog produces a sound that resembles a laugh rather than a croak, setting it apart from other frogs.
Western Laughing Tree Frog (Litoria ridibunda):
- This frog is special because it makes a laughing sound instead of the usual croak that frogs are known for.
- A colorful, glowing marine worm that has been named in honor of Sir David Attenborough, the famous nature documentary host.
Cracking-Clay Pilbara Planigale (Planigale tealei):
- This tiny marsupial, which looks a bit like a shrew, has adapted to live in the clay habitats of the Pilbara region.
6. Swachh Vayu Survekshan Awards
Q. With reference to ‘Swachh Vayu Survekshan Awards’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It aims to evaluate the progress of cities in improving air quality based on initiatives, policies, and the level of community engagement.
- The program targets to cut particulate matter concentrations by 20-30% in non-attainment cities by 2030.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Union Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav and Chief Minister of Rajasthan Bhajan Lal Sharma presented Swachh Vayu Survekshan Award, 2024
The Swachh Vayu Survekshan Awards:
- The Swachh Vayu Survekshan Awards are part of India’s ongoing efforts to combat air pollution and improve air quality in cities across the country.
- Initiated by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), these awards recognize cities for their efforts in effectively implementing measures to reduce air pollution under the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP).
- The program aims to cut particulate matter concentrations by 20-30% in non-attainment cities by 2024, compared to 2017 levels. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- Objective:
- The awards aim to evaluate the progress of cities in improving air quality based on initiatives, policies, and the level of community engagement. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- They encourage healthy competition between cities to push forward sustainable air quality management practices.
- Cities are divided into categories based on their population size:
- Category 1 – Cities with a population of more than 10 lakh (1 million)
- Category 2 – Cities with a population between 3 lakh and 10 lakh
- Category 3 – Cities with a population of less than 3 lakh
- Evaluation Parameters: Cities are judged based on several factors, including:
The implementation of action plans under NCAP.
- The level of reduction in PM2.5 and PM10 levels.
- Public participation in initiatives to improve air quality.
- Policies promoting the use of clean energy, better waste management, and reducing vehicular emissions.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2052872
7. Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART) mission
Q. With reference to the “DART Mission”, Consider the following statements.
- It is a planetary defense experiment aimed to protect Earth from potentially hazardous asteroids.
- It is the first mission designed to intentionally crash into an asteroid to alter its trajectory through kinetic impactor technology.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: NASA’s DART mission may have created ’first human-made’ meteor shower
- The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) successfully crashed a vending machine-sized spacecraft into asteroid moonlet Dimorphos. The mission was called the Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART) and it may have now resulted in the first ‘human-made’ meteor shower.
Dimorphids: First human-made meteor shower
- The impact of NASA’s DART mission, which successfully altered a smaller asteroid’s orbit in space by a whopping 33 minutes, may lead to an extraordinary phenomenon — the first human-made meteor shower, the Dimorphids.
- According to the CNN, scientists estimated the intentional collision in DART mission generated more than 2 million pounds (nearly 1 million kilograms) of rocks and dust — enough to fill about six or seven rail cars.
NASA’s DART mission:
- NASA’s DART (Double Asteroid Redirection Test) mission was a groundbreaking planetary defense experiment aimed at testing humanity’s ability to protect Earth from potentially hazardous asteroids. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It was the first mission designed to intentionally crash into an asteroid to alter its trajectory, demonstrating a technique known as kinetic impactor technology. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The primary goal of the DART mission was to test whether a spacecraft could be used to deflect an asteroid from its orbit by crashing into it at high speed. This would help in developing strategies to protect Earth from possible future asteroid threats.
- DART’s target was Dimorphos, a small moonlet that orbits a larger asteroid called Didymos. Dimorphos, about 160 meters in diameter, poses no threat to Earth, making it an ideal test subject for the mission. The Didymos-Dimorphos system is part of a binary asteroid system.
8. Glowing Algae
Q. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Bioluminescent algae are capable of producing light to attract larger predators to feed on the algae’s attackers.
Statement-II:
It occurs due to a reaction between a light-emitting molecule called luciferin and an enzyme called luciferase in the algae.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Explanation:
In NEWS:
People gather on the Veddelev beach in Roskilde Fjord, Denmark, to experience the phenomenon of bioluminescence, on Sunday. The warm weather provided good conditions to see the glowing algae in the water, which light up when there is movement.
Bioluminescent algae:
- Bioluminescent algae are fascinating microorganisms capable of producing light through a chemical reaction within their cells, a process known as bioluminescence.
- This natural glow is most often observed in marine environments, especially at night, where it creates stunning, glowing waves or illuminates the water when disturbed by motion.
- Bioluminescence occurs due to a reaction between a light-emitting molecule called luciferin and an enzyme called luciferase in the algae.
- When the algae are disturbed (by waves, boats, or marine organisms swimming), the luciferin reacts with oxygen, catalyzed by luciferase, producing light.Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It is believed to be a defense mechanism. When disturbed, the glowing light might startle or confuse predators, or it could attract larger predators to feed on the algae’s attackers.Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Bioluminescent algae thrive in nutrient-rich, warm coastal waters.
- The glow is more visible in areas where the water is clear and calm.
- It tends to be most prominent during certain times of the year when algae blooms occur, sometimes creating the phenomenon known as red tides or harmful algal blooms (HABs). These can produce toxins harmful to marine life, but not all blooms are toxic.
Source: https://epaper.thehindu.com/reader
https://www.treehugger.com/what-is-bioluminescent-algae-5116972#toc-what-is-bioluminescence
9. Teal carbon
Q. Which one of the following best describes the term “Teal carbon”?
- Carbon captured through the air or industrial emissions
- Carbon stored in ocean plants and sediments
- Carbon stored in freshwater and wetland environments
- Carbon released by incomplete combustion of organic matter
Answer: (c) Carbon stored in freshwater and wetland environments
Explanation:
In NEWS: India’s first ‘teal carbon’ study bets on wetlands to address the challenges of climate adaptation and resilience
- India’s first study on ‘teal carbon’, undertaken at Keoladeo National Park (KNP) in Rajasthan’s Bharatpur district, has highlighted the significance of wetland conservation to address the challenges of climate adaptation and resilience.
- The pilot project sought to develop holistic nature-based solutions to address climate change.
Teal carbon:
- Teal carbon refers to carbon stored in non-tidal freshwater wetlands, encompassing carbon sequestered in vegetation, microbial biomass, and dissolved and particulate organic matter
- Though these wetlands play a crucial role in regulating greenhouse gases, they are vulnerable to degradation from pollution, land use changes, water extraction, and landscape modifications.
- ‘Teal carbon’ being a colour-based terminology reflects the classification of the organic carbon based on its functions and location rather than its physical properties.
- As opposed to teal carbon, black and brown carbon are primarily produced by incomplete combustion of organic matter from sources such as wild fires, fossil fuel combustion, and industrial activities.
- They contribute to global warming.
- At the global level, the storage of teal carbon across the ecosystems is estimated to be 500.21 petagrams of carbon (PgC), which is a unit to measure carbon.
- Peatlands, freshwater swamps, and natural freshwater marshes account for a significant amount of this storage.
Scientists use color to classify carbon at different points in the carbon cycle based on carbon function, characteristics, and location. This creates a more descriptive framework than traditional “organic” and “inorganic” labels.
- Purple – Carbon captured through the air or industrial emissions
- Blue – Carbon stored in ocean plants and sediments
- Teal – Carbon stored in freshwater and wetland environments. Hence option (c) is correct.
- Green – Carbon stored in terrestrial plants
- Black – Carbon released through the burning of fossil fuels
- Gray – Carbon released through industrial emissions
- Brown – Carbon released by incomplete combustion of organic matter
- Red – Carbon released through biological particles on snow and ice that reduce albedo.
https://www.usgs.gov/media/images/carbon-rainbow
10. In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to (UPSC PYQ 2024)
(a) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms.
(b) an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward
(c) a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible
(d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market
Answer: (d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market