1. With reference to Indian polity, The State Election Commission (SEC) is empowered to:
1. Prepare the main electoral rolls.
2. Add, delete, or modify names in the electoral rolls of Assembly constituencies.
3. Prepare and announce election schedules, notify elections, and enforce the Model Code of Conduct.
4. Delimit wards, divide constituencies, and allocate seats for local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (b) 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
In NEWS:
Powers of the State Election Commission (SEC)
- What the State Election Commission (SEC) CAN do
- Exercise superintendence, direction, and control over elections to Panchayats and Municipalities (Article 243K & 243ZA).
- Conduct and supervise the entire election process for local bodies.
- Prepare and announce election schedules, notify elections, and enforce the Model Code of Conduct. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Delimit wards, divide constituencies, and allocate seats for local bodies (as authorised under State laws). Hence statement 4 is correct.
- Publish ward-wise electoral rolls by using the Assembly electoral rolls provided by the Election Commission of India (ECI).
- Invite and decide objections related to ward-wise voter lists — e.g., wrong ward assignment, missing names, duplicate entries.
- Appoint Returning Officers, Presiding Officers, and polling staff for local body elections.
- Order repolling in booths where major irregularities or malpractice occur.
- Countermand an election if there is booth capturing, large-scale violence, or severe procedural violations.
- Monitor and regulate election expenditure of candidates in local body elections (as per State laws).
- Enforce the Model Code of Conduct during local body elections.
What the State Election Commission (SEC) CANNOT do
- Cannot prepare the main electoral rolls. These are prepared solely by the Election Commission of India (ECI) under the Representation of the People Act, 1950. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Cannot add, delete, or modify names in the electoral rolls of Assembly constituencies. Hence statement 2 is in
- correct.
- Cannot revise the cut-off date for inclusion of first-time voters (e.g., those turning 18 after Jan 1).
- Cannot remove or correct defective entries in the base electoral roll prepared by ECI.
- Cannot change voter identity details, addresses, or polling booth assignments in the main ECI list.
- Cannot reject or approve citizenship/residency claims — these fall under ECI and district-level electoral registration officers.
- Cannot modify laws related to reservation of seats (women, SC, ST, OBC); it only implements State legislation.
- Cannot alter the model code or rules framed by State governments; it only enforces them.
- Cannot change the timeline mandated by the Supreme Court for completing elections.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2017) Q. Consider the following statements: 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only |
2. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The 2023 amendment to the RTI Act strengthens citizens’ privacy while maintaining transparency.
Statement II: It allows public authorities to deny RTI requests on personal data unless public interest overrides privacy concerns.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Explanation:
In NEWS: Data privacy law comes into effect, two years after Parliament approval
Relationship between RTI Amendment 2023 and DPDP Act 2023:
- The RTI Act, 2005, allowed citizens to access information from public authorities but included exemptions for personal information to protect privacy.
- The 2023 amendment updates these exemptions to align with the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, which gives stronger legal protection to personal data.
- Under the amendment, public authorities can refuse RTI requests involving personal data if disclosing it would violate privacy.
- However, disclosure is allowed if the public interest outweighs privacy concerns, maintaining transparency.
Hence both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023:
- The Act is designed to protect the personal data of individuals in India and regulate how it is collected, processed, stored, and shared by government and private entities.
- It applies to all entities processing personal data of Indian citizens, whether the entity is in India or outside the country if it involves Indian citizens.
- Personal data includes any information that identifies or can identify an individual, directly or indirectly. Examples include names, addresses, phone numbers, email IDs, biometric data, and financial information.
- Data Fiduciary: Any entity or person that decides how and why personal data is processed.
- Data Principal: The individual whose personal data is being processed.
- Processing of personal data generally requires the explicit consent of the individual, except in specific cases such as legal obligations, public interest, or emergencies.
- Rights of Individuals:
- The Act grants citizens rights such as:
- Right to access their data
- Right to correct or update data
- Right to withdraw consent for processing
- Right to grievance redressal
- The Act prescribes fines and penalties for unlawful collection, processing, or disclosure of personal data.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2020) Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. 2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing Aadhaar data. 3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. 4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only |
3. The strategic Siliguri Corridor is a part of which among the following states?
(a) Assam
(b) Sikkim
(c) West Bengal
(d) Bihar
Answer: (c) West Bengal
Explanation:
In NEWS:
- Army sets up three new garrisons near the strategic Siliguri Corridor
- India has established three new military garrisons close to the Bangladesh border in the eastern region. These are located at:
- Bamuni in Assam
- Kishanganj in Bihar
- Chopra in West Bengal
- These garrisons reinforce the larger military framework defending the Siliguri Corridor, also known as the Chicken’s Neck, the narrow land strip that connects mainland India to the entire Northeast.
Siliguri Corridor:
- The Siliguri Corridor is a narrow stretch of land in the Indian state of West Bengal. Hence option (c) is correct.
- It connects mainland India to all eight northeastern states (like Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Tripura, Meghalaya, etc.).
- At its narrowest point, it is only about 20–22 km wide.
- On one side is Nepal, and on the other side is Bangladesh.
- To the north is Bhutan, and further north is China (Tibet).
- This makes it one of the most strategically sensitive corridors in the world.
Significance of the corridor:
- Lifeline to the Northeast: Almost all Road transport, Rail transport, Military movement and Supply routes between the rest of India and the Northeast must pass through this narrow corridor.
- High Strategic Vulnerability: Because the corridor is so narrow, it is a chokepoint. If disrupted in any conflict or crisis, the Northeast could become cut off from the rest of India.
- Surrounded by Multiple Countries: This makes it a high-pressure geopolitical area.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2018) Q. In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located? (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Manipur (c) Meghalaya (d) Nagaland |
4. The National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) 2020 primarily seeks to:
(a) Promote 100% conversion of all petrol vehicles to LNG-based engines
(b) Achieve energy security through adoption of electric and hybrid vehicles
(c) Replace all diesel-powered railway engines with hydrogen fuel cells
(d) Mandate conversion of all two-wheelers to electric vehicles by 2025
Answer: (b) Achieve energy security through adoption of electric and hybrid vehicles
Explanation:
In NEWS: SC wants govt. to promote EVs amid high air pollution
National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) 2020:
- Launched in 2012 by the Ministry of Heavy Industries as a national mission framework to promote electric and hybrid mobility in India. Hence option (b) is correct.
- It is a vision document laying the roadmap for faster adoption of electric vehicles (EVs), strengthening domestic manufacturing, and reducing fossil-fuel dependence by 2020.
- Serves as the umbrella mission under which FAME India Scheme was launched (Phase-I in 2015).
Objectives
- Energy Security: Reduce India’s reliance on imported crude oil.
- Environmental Benefits: Reduce vehicular pollution and greenhouse gas emissions.
- Promotion of e-Mobility: Encourage adoption of hybrid and electric vehicles in multiple categories.
- Domestic Manufacturing: Build an indigenous EV ecosystem: batteries, motors, power electronics, charging components.
- Technology + R&D: Support research in battery tech, motors, BMS, testing infrastructure.
- Infrastructure Development: Charging stations, grid readiness, urban e-mobility systems.
Targets
- 6–7 million annual hybrid/electric vehicles sales by 2020.
- 15–16 million cumulative EV sales by 2020.
- Potential saving of 9,500 million litres of fuel → approx ₹60,000+ crore annual savings.
- Strategic target of positioning India as a global leader in EV 2-wheelers and 4-wheelers.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2025) Q. Consider the following types of vehicles: I. Full battery electric vehicles II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None |
5. With reference to the Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP), consider the following statements:
1. It provides free vaccination against vaccine-preventable diseases (VPDs) for all children and pregnant women.
2. The Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (MoHFW) is responsible for policy, funding, and nationwide implementation of the Universal Immunisation Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Why Hepatitis A deserves a place in India’s universal immunisation programme
Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP):
- The Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP) is one of the largest public health programmes in the world, launched in 1985 in India.
- It provides free vaccination against vaccine-preventable diseases (VPDs) for all children and pregnant women. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (MoHFW) is responsible for policy, funding, and nationwide implementation of the Universal Immunisation Programme. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Objectives
1. Increase full immunisation coverage among children and pregnant women.
2. Reduce morbidity, mortality, and disability due to VPDs.
3. Introduce new/underutilised vaccines based on scientific evidence.
4. Strengthen cold chain, surveillance, supply chain, and service delivery.
Key Features
- Mission Indradhanush (MI) (2014) and Intensified MI improve coverage in low-performing districts.
- eVIN (electronic Vaccine Intelligence Network): Digital vaccine stock and temperature monitoring.
- U-WIN platform (in pilot) immunisation registry (similar to CoWIN).
- Cold chain strengthening: >27,000 cold chain points.
- AEFI surveillance: For adverse events following immunisation.
Vaccines Under UIP (as of now) UIP provides free vaccines against 12 VPDs:
Routine Childhood Vaccines
- BCG – Tuberculosis
- OPV – Polio
- IPV – Polio
- DPT – Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus
- Hepatitis B
- Measles + Measles-Rubella (MR)
- Pentavalent (DPT + Hepatitis B + Hib)
- Rotavirus
- Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV)
- Japanese Encephalitis (JE) (endemic districts)
Vaccines for Pregnant Women
- Td vaccine (Tetanus + Diphtheria)
Adolescents (in some states)
- HPV vaccine (recent introduction in phases)
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2020) Q. What is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India? 1. These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis. 2. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced. 3. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
6. Consider the following statements with respect to the Green Climate Fund (GCF)
I. It is a climate finance fund established under the United Nations Environment Program(UNEP).
II. It raises money through voluntary contributions from developed countries.
III. Recipient countries themselves can propose and design projects that help turn their climate commitments into concrete, implementable actions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and Il only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (b) II and III only
Explanation:
In NEWS: India to spruce up mechanisms for accessing climate finance
Green Climate Fund (GCF):
- The GCF is a climate finance fund established under the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Hence statement I is incorrect.
- It’s headquartered in Songdo, Incheon, South Korea.
- Its main goal is to help developing countries fund projects for both mitigation (reducing greenhouse gas emissions) and adaptation (dealing with climate impacts).
- The GCF has a 24-member Board, with equal representation from developed and developing countries.
- GCF raises money through voluntary contributions from developed countries. Hence statement II is correct.
- It uses a mix of financial instruments: grants, concessional loans, equity, and guarantees.
- A core principle of GCF is “country ownership”: recipient countries lead on proposing and designing projects. Hence statement III is correct.
- There is a “Readiness Programme” which helps countries build capacity to engage with GCF.
- GCF works through accredited entities (over 200) — these include development banks, national institutions, UN agencies, and civil society organizations.
GCF’s strategic plan (2024–2027) focuses on:
- Helping countries convert their climate commitments (like NDCs) into real projects.
- Scaling up clean energy, especially in buildings, transport, and industry.
- Strengthening adaptation financing, particularly for local-level actions.
- Providing early-stage funding for climate startups and innovative business models.
- Making it easier for national and regional institutions (especially in developing countries) to directly access GCF funds.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2015) Q. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct? 1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change. 2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
7. If a Coronal mass ejection (CME) from the sun reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?
1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
3. Power grids could be damaged.
4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Answer: (c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Astronomers spot coronal mass ejection on another star for first time
Coronal mass ejection:
- CMEs release large quantities of matter from the Sun’s atmosphere into the solar wind and interplanetary space. The ejected matter is a plasma consisting primarily of electrons and protons embedded within its magnetic field.
- This magnetic field is commonly in the form of a flux rope, a helical magnetic field with changing pitch angles.
- Geomagnetic storms: A CME can cause a geomagnetic storm by transferring energy to Earth’s magnetic field. This can cause the ionosphere and upper thermosphere to heat up, and create intense currents in Earth’s magnetosphere.
- Auroras: When a CME collides with Earth’s magnetosphere, it can send radiation into Earth’s upper atmosphere. This radiation causes gas molecules in the atmosphere to release light, creating auroras, also known as the northern and southern lights.
- Radio signal and navigation system disruption: CMEs can disrupt radio signals and navigation systems.
- Satellite drag: CMEs can create drag for low-orbiting satellites.
- Power grid damage: CMEs can damage electrical transmission line facilities, which can lead to power outages.
- Radiation storms: The radiation storms associated with CMEs can be hazardous to astronauts and spacecraft.
Hence, statements 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 are correct.
Coronal mass ejection (CME) does not cause tsunamis or forest fires on Earth:
- Tsunamis: Tsunamis are caused by the displacement of a large amount of water in an ocean or lake, such as by earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or underwater explosions. CMEs are giant clouds of electrically charged particles from the sun that move at high speeds. While solar storms can generate shock waves that affect the sun, they can’t directly cause tsunamis on Earth.
- Forest fires: There is no causal link between CMEs and forest fires.
Hence, statements 2 and 5 are incorrect.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? 1. GPS and navigation systems could fail. 2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. 3. Power grids could be damaged. 4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. 5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. 6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. 7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only (c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 |
8. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Integrated forum on Climate Change and Trade (IFCCT):
1. IFCCT was launched at COP-30 as a permanent platform on climate – trade interface.
2. It aims to negotiate trade rules and engage in non-judgmental, solution-oriented dialogue on climate and trade policies.
3. It mandates to frame binding global trade rules on carbon border taxes.
4. The Forum is open to all Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation:
In NEWS: COP30 launches forum to navigate climate and trade tensions
Integrated forum on Climate Change and Trade (IFCCT):
- IFCCT was launched at COP-30 (2025) as a permanent platform on climate–trade interface. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The objective is not to negotiate trade rules, but to engage in non-judgmental, solution-oriented dialogue on how trade measures, climate ambition, and development priorities interact. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- The Forum is open to all Parties to the UNFCCC. Hence statement 4 is correct.
- It is co-chaired by Brazil and a developed-country partner, ensuring balanced representation.
- IFCCT discusses carbon border measures, green industrial policies, and trade–climate tensions.
- It begins with open-ended consultations (2025–26) to define agenda and modalities.
- TESS (Trade, Environment, Sustainable Development) serves as the technical Secretariat.
- The Forum works on aligning trade rules with climate ambition while considering development needs.
- It focuses on concerns of developing countries about green protectionism.
- First formal consultation is scheduled for Geneva (Dec 2025).
- IFCCT does not create binding trade rules, unlike the WTO. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- It promotes One-Earth, fair-transition principles in climate-related trade policies.
- Helps countries adapt to CBAM-type border carbon taxes.
- Facilitates cooperation on green supply chains, low-carbon technologies, and standards.
- Aims to prevent trade measures from undermining climate justice and equity.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2025) Q. Consider the following statements: Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’. Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize the health sector. Statement III: If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct |
9. ‘Global antibiotic resistance surveillance report 2025 (GLASS)’ is released by which of the following?
(a) The Global Leaders Group on Antimicrobial Resistance (GLG)
(b) The World Health Organization (WHO)
(c) The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) under its One-Health initiative
(d) The World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH)
Answer: (b) The World Health Organization (WHO)
Explanation:
In NEWS: Holding up GLASS to India; securing stewardship to tackle AMR
GLASS 2025 Report:
- GLASS (Global Antimicrobial Resistance & Use Surveillance System) is WHO’s global surveillance platform for AMR and antimicrobial use. Hence option (b) is correct.
- GLASS 2025 provides global AMR estimates based on data from over 23 million confirmed infections across more than 100 countries.
- The report notes that 1 in 6 bacterial infections globally in 2023 was resistant to standard antibiotic treatment.
- GLASS 2025 provides national and regional estimates for 93 pathogen – infection – antibiotic combinations, with trend data for 16 combinations (2018–2023).
- GLASS collects data across multiple modules:
- AMR surveillance (GLASS-AMR)
- Antimicrobial consumption/use (GLASS-AMC)
- Emerging resistance (GLASS-EAR)
- Invasive fungal infections (GLASS-FUNGI)
- One-Health surveillance (human–animal–environment linkages)
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2019) Q. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India? 1. Genetic predisposition of some people 2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases 3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming 4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 |
10. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal, designated as the Governor General of India?
(a) The Regulating Act
(b) The Pitt’s India Act
(c) The Charter Act of 1793
(d) The Charter Act of 1833
Answer: (d) The Charter Act of 1833
Explanation:
The Charter Act of 1833 redesignated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India, giving him exclusive legislative powers for the whole of British India.