1. Consider the following statements with respect to the Judicial appointments in India:
1. The Constitution defines the role of the judiciary in judicial appointments.
2. The collegium recommends appointments and transfers of judges in the Supreme Court only.
3. The government can return the recommendations of the collegium only once for reconsideration but not necessarily abide by it.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
Explanation:
In NEWS: Supreme Court Collegium’s shift in Justice Sreedharan’s appointment raises concerns over Executive influence in judicial independence
Appointment of Judges in India:
The Constitution of India provides for the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts. According to:
- Article 124(2): Appointment of Supreme Court judges by the President after consultation with such judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts as deemed necessary.
- Article 217: Appointment of High Court judges by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI), the Governor of the State, and the Chief Justice of the High Court.
However, the Constitution does not clearly define the process of consultation or the role of the judiciary in appointments, leading to interpretations and evolving practices. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Emergence of the Collegium System: Landmark Supreme Court Judgments
First Judges Case (1981): S.P. Gupta vs Union of India
The Court held that the consultation with the Chief Justice of India was not binding on the President, giving primacy to the executive in appointments.
Second Judges Case (1993): Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association vs Union of India
The Court overruled the First Judges Case, holding that the “consultation” with the Chief Justice of India means concurrence, giving the judiciary primacy in the appointment of judges. This led to the creation of the Collegium — a forum of the Chief Justice of India and the four senior-most Supreme Court judges to recommend appointments.
Third Judges Case (1998): In re Presidential Reference
The Court expanded the Collegium to include the CJI and the four senior-most judges (instead of two), formalizing the process.
Collegium:
- It recommends appointments and transfers of judges in the Supreme Court and High Courts. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- The recommendations are sent to the Central Government, which usually forwards them to the President for approval.
- The government has limited power to reject recommendations, generally returning them once for reconsideration but must abide by the Collegium if recommendations are reiterated. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2012) Q. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India? 1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India. 2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only. 3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote. 4.All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
2. What is/are the importance/importances of the ‘United Nations Convention against Terror Financing’?
1. It criminalizes the collection or provision of funds intended for terrorist acts, even if the acts are not carried out.
2. It applies only to tangible assets and excludes digital or electronic assets.
3. It obliges States to either prosecute or extradite offenders involved in terror financing.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Iran to join UN’s anti-terror group
UN convention against terror financing:
- Adopted by the UN General Assembly on 9 December 1999.
- Entered into force on 10 April 2002.
- It was a response to the growing recognition that terrorism cannot function without financial support.
Objective:
To criminalize the financing of terrorism – cutting off funds used to plan, carry out, or support terrorist acts.
Key Provisions
- Criminalization (Article 2): Any person who provides or collects funds knowing they will be used to carry out acts of terrorism is guilty of an offence.
- Definition of “Funds”: Assets of every kind (tangible/intangible, movable/immovable) including electronic or digital assets. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- Scope: Applies whether the terrorist act is actually carried out or not. Covers both direct and indirect financing. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Jurisdiction (Articles 6–9): States must establish jurisdiction if the offence occurs in their territory or involves their citizens. Encourages extradition or prosecution (aut dedere aut judicare). Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Information Sharing: Promotes international cooperation, exchange of intelligence, and assistance in investigations.
- Relation to Other Instruments: Works in tandem with UN Security Council Resolution 1373 (2001) after 9/11, which mandated freezing of terrorist assets. Supported by Financial Action Task Force (FATF) standards.
India’s Position:
- India signed the convention in 2000 and ratified it in 2010.
- Domestic laws aligned with it include:
- Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA)
- Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA)
- National Investigation Agency (NIA) Act
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2016) Q. What is/are the importance/importances of the ‘United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification’? 1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative national programmes and supportive international partnerships. 2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North Africa regions, and its Secretariat facilitates the allocation of major portion of financial resources to these regions. 3. It is committed to bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating the desertification. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
3. With reference to ‘Global Forest Resources Assessment (GFRA) 2025’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. It is a flagship initiative of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
II. It is conducted every two years.
III. India ranked 3rd in the world in terms of annual forest area gain, indicating continued expansion of forest and tree cover.
IV. Globally, the rate of loss due to deforestation has slowed compared to the 1990s.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I, III and IV only
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer: (c) I, III and IV only
Explanation:
In NEWS: India moves up to 9th Position Globally in Forest Area; Continues to Rank 3rd in Annual Forest Gain
Global Forest Resources Assessment:
- The Global Forest Resources Assessment (FRA) is a flagship program of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations. Hence statement I is correct.
- It provides comprehensive, consistent, and comparable information on the world’s forests – their extent, condition, management, and uses.
- The FRA process began in 1948, when FAO conducted the first global assessment of forest resources.
- Initially, the assessments were based on limited data and were updated roughly every 10 years. Since 1990, the FRA has been conducted every five years. Hence statement II is incorrect.
Key global Findings of FRA 2025:
- Total global forest area: Around 4.14 billion hectares, about 32 percent of the Earth’s land area.
- Deforestation continues, but the rate of loss has slowed compared to the 1990s. Hence statement IV is correct.
- Net forest loss is still occurring, mainly in tropical regions, though gains are seen in parts of Asia, Europe, and North America.
- Planted forests and restoration efforts are expanding, accounting for roughly 7 percent of global forest area.
- Forests store an estimated 660 billion tonnes of carbon, underlining their crucial role in climate regulation.
- Sustainable forest management has increased, with over half of the world’s forests now under a management plan.
India Highlights (FRA 2025):
- India’s total forest area: about 72.7 million hectares (roughly 22 percent of its land area).
- India’s global rank: now 9th in total forest area (previously 10th).
- Annual forest area gain: India ranks 3rd in the world, indicating continued expansion of forest and tree cover. Hence statement III is correct.
- India’s forest carbon stock has also increased, mainly due to large-scale afforestation and reforestation programs.
Regional Trends:
- Asia: Overall forest area is increasing, driven mainly by gains in China and India.
- Africa and South America: Continue to experience the highest rates of deforestation.
- Europe: Forest area is stable or slightly increasing, with high levels of sustainable management.
- North America: Forest area stable, but wildfire and pest outbreaks remain major challenges.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2013) Q. With reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partnership Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples. 2. It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management. 3. It assists the countries in their ‘REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation+)’ efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2181416
4. Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘Sevilla Forum on Debt’:
I. It was launched at the 16th meeting of the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development in Geneva.
II. It serves as an inclusive space where developed and developing countries and other stakeholders can engage in debt-related dialogue.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
In NEWS: New Sevilla Forum launched to tackle global debt crisis
Sevilla Forum on Debt:
- A new initiative called the Sevilla Forum on Debt has been launched at the UNCTAD 16 (the 16th meeting of the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development) in Geneva. Hence statement I is correct.
- This forum is a Spanish-led initiative, supported by the United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UN DESA) and UNCTAD.
Significance:
- Global public debt hit US $102 trillion in 2024, with developing nations owing US $31 trillion and paying US $921 billion in interest.
- Around 3.4 billion people live in countries spending more on debt than on health or education.
- The Sevilla Forum was launched to create an inclusive platform for debtor and creditor nations, experts, and civil society to drive debt reform, promote fair lending and borrowing, and build a more equitable global debt system.
Key goals of the Sevilla Forum:
- Serve as an inclusive space where developed & developing countries (and other stakeholders) can engage in debt-related dialogue. Hence statement II is correct.
- Track the implementation of the commitments made under the “Sevilla Commitment”.
- Advance principles of responsible borrowing and lending.
- Reform the global debt architecture so it becomes fairer and more development-oriented.
- Transform political commitments into institutional mechanisms for fairer, more predictable debt governance.
UNCTAD:
- The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) is a permanent intergovernmental body established in 1964.
- It is part of the United Nations Secretariat and serves as the main UN body dealing with trade, investment, and development issues.
- UNCTAD works to help developing countries integrate into the global economy in a way that supports inclusive and sustainable development.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2017) Q. The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an (a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank. (b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital. (c) Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment. (d) UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world. |
5. JAIMEX is a bilateral naval exercise conducted between India and
(a) Jamaica
(b) Israel
(c) Japan
(d) Lebanon
Answer: (c) Japan
Explanation:
In NEWS: Japan India Maritime Exercise held from 16 to 18 Oct 2025
JAIMEX:
- JAIMEX (Japan–India Maritime Exercise) is a bilateral naval exercise between the Indian Navy and the Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force (JMSDF). Hence option (c) is correct.
- The 2025 edition, called JAIMEX 25, showcased the growing maritime cooperation and strategic partnership between India and Japan in promoting a free, open, and secure Indo-Pacific region.
- Sea Phase: 16–18 October 2025, held in the waters off the western coast of Kyushu, Japan.
- Harbour Phase: Conducted later at Yokosuka Port, Japan, including professional and cultural interactions.
Participating Forces
From India:
- INS Sahyadri, a Shivalik-class guided-missile stealth frigate commanded by Captain Rajat Kumar.
From Japan:
- JS Asahi (destroyer)
- JS Oumi (fleet oiler)
- Submarine Jinryu
- Units from the Japan Ground Self-Defense Force’s 2nd Artillery Brigade and the Japan Air Self-Defense Force’s Western Aircraft Control & Warning Wing.
Significance:
- Enhances interoperability between the Indian Navy and JMSDF through complex maritime operations.
- Reinforces the Special Strategic and Global Partnership between India and Japan, particularly in defence and maritime security.
- Demonstrates a shared commitment to maintaining peace, stability, and freedom of navigation in the Indo-Pacific.
- Builds trust, mutual understanding, and operational coordination between the two naval forces.
- Strengthens regional cooperation among like-minded countries to uphold international maritime law and deter common threats.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2181539
6. “3D sensors” have applications in which of the following?
1. Identify potholes
2. Quality inspection
3. Gesture-based control of lights
4. Crop yield estimation
5. Augmented Reality apps
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation:
In NEWS: NHAI to deploy 3D sensors to identify potholes, road cracks across 23 States
3D Sensors:
- 3D sensors are devices that capture real-world objects or environments in three dimensions, measuring not just x and y (width and height), but also z (depth).
- They detect the shape, size, distance, and spatial position of objects by analyzing reflected light, sound, or other signals.
- In simple terms, a 3D sensor can “see” depth — giving machines perception similar to human vision.
Applications of 3D Sensors:
- Smartphones and tablets: Facial recognition (Face ID), gesture control, augmented reality (AR) apps.
- Gaming: Motion tracking in devices like Xbox Kinect or VR headsets.
- Driver-assistance systems (ADAS): Parking sensors, collision avoidance, blind-spot detection.
- Autonomous vehicles: LIDAR-based 3D mapping for navigation and obstacle detection.
- Robotics: Object detection, picking and placing, safety zones.
- Quality inspection: Measuring parts in 3D to ensure precision in manufacturing.
- Medical imaging and surgery: 3D scanners assist in prosthetics design, surgical planning, and rehabilitation.
- Patient monitoring: Depth cameras detect movement and posture.
- Facial recognition and intrusion detection systems use 3D imaging for higher accuracy.
- Create realistic 3D maps of users and environments for immersive experiences.
- Road Safety: Detects potholes, cracks, and surface defects on national highways.
- Gesture-based control of lights, TVs, and appliances using 3D motion sensors.
- Drones with 3D sensors for mapping terrain, crop monitoring, and yield estimation.
Hence option (d) is correct.
Common 3D sensing technologies include:
- Time-of-Flight (ToF): Measures the time light takes to reflect back.
- LIDAR (Light Detection and Ranging): Uses laser pulses to build accurate 3D surface maps.
- Structured Light: Projects patterns and measures distortions to detect shapes.
- Stereo Vision: Uses dual cameras to measure depth differences.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2018) Q. “3D printing” has applications in which of the following? 1. Preparation of confectionery items 2. Manufacture of bionic ears 3. Automotive industry 4. Reconstructive surgeries 5. Data processing technologies Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 5 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 |
7. The Sakharov Prize for human rights is awarded by the
(a) European Union
(b) United Nations
(c) United Nations Human Rights Council
(d) World Bank
Answer: (a) European Union
Explanation:
In NEWS: Journalists imprisoned in Belarus and Georgia win EU’s top human rights award. Hence option (a) is correct.
- Two journalists currently imprisoned—Andrzej Poczobut from Belarus and Mzia Amaghlobeli from Georgia—were awarded the European Union’s Sakharov Prize for Freedom of Thought in 2025.
- European Parliament President Roberta Metsola highlighted their courage and their role as symbols of the fight for freedom and democracy.
The Sakharov Prize:
- The Sakharov Prize is a prestigious human rights award established by the European Parliament in 1988.
- It is named after Andrei Sakharov, a Soviet physicist, dissident, and Nobel Peace Prize laureate known for his courageous fight for human rights, freedom of thought, and democracy.
The prize honors individuals, groups, or organizations that have made an outstanding contribution to:
- Defending human rights and fundamental freedoms
- Promoting freedom of thought
- Advancing democracy and the rule of law
- Combating oppression, injustice, and political persecution
Selection Process
- Candidates are nominated by the political groups within the European Parliament.
- A committee of senior Members of the European Parliament (MEPs) selects the laureate(s) from the nominees.
- The prize is awarded annually.
The award consists of:
- A formal recognition by the European Parliament
- A monetary prize (currently €50,000) to support the laureate’s work
- The ceremony is traditionally held at the European Parliament in Strasbourg, France.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2025) Q. Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of ‘Gandhi Peace Prize’? I. The President of India II. The Prime Minister of India III. The Chief Justice of India IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) II and IV only (b) I, II and III (c) II, III and IV (d) I and III only |
8. With reference to Indian polity, consider the following statements:
1. Article 371 of the constitution of India provides special administrative provisions for Ladakh and Jammu and Kashmir to protect local customs, laws, and interests.
2. Currently, Ladakh acts as a Union Territory (UT) without a legislature which is administered by a Lieutenant Governor appointed by the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: As talks on Ladakh resume, Centre offers special provisions under Article 371
BACKGROUND
1. Ladakh’s Current Administrative Status
- Ladakh became a Union Territory (UT) without legislature on October 31, 2019, following the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019.
- Earlier, it was a part of the erstwhile State of Jammu & Kashmir.
- Ladakh has two districts: Leh and Kargil.
- Administered by a Lieutenant Governor appointed by the President of India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
2. Reason for Statehood and Sixth Schedule Demands
- Post-2019, absence of legislative representation and local decision-making powers led to concerns over:
- Land rights of locals.
- Employment reservation for residents.
- Protection of tribal culture and ecology in a fragile Himalayan region.
- Civil society groups — Leh Apex Body (LAB) and Kargil Democratic Alliance (KDA) — spearhead the movement.
- They demand:
- Full Statehood for Ladakh, or
- Sixth Schedule inclusion for local autonomy.
3. Recent Context (2025)
- Protests turned violent in Leh; four people killed, including a Kargil war veteran.
- MHA offered to explore Article 371-type provisions as a possible middle path.
- LAB and KDA rejected this, insisting on Sixth Schedule recognition.
- They also demanded release of Sonam Wangchuk and compensation for victims.
CONSTITUTIONAL CONTEXT
A. Article 371 (Part XXI – Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions)
- Provides special administrative provisions for certain States to protect local customs, laws, and interests.
- Applicable to 12 States: Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Mizoram, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Arunachal Pradesh, Goa, Sikkim, Karnataka.
- Ladakh and Jammu & Kashmir are governed under Articles 239 and 239A, not Article 371. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Example:
- Article 371A (Nagaland) – Protection of Naga religious and social practices, customary law, and ownership of land/resources.
- Article 371G (Mizoram) – Similar protection for Mizo customary law and practices.
- Article 371D (Andhra Pradesh) – Equitable opportunities in public employment and education.
Relevance to Ladakh:
Article 371-type special provisions could protect tribal rights, land, and local governance, but without legislative autonomy like the Sixth Schedule.
B. Sixth Schedule [Articles 244(2) and 275(1)]
- Applies to Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura.
- Provides for Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) — elected bodies with legislative, administrative, and financial powers over:
- Land management
- Forest use
- Agriculture
- Village administration
- Cultural practices
Relevance to Ladakh:
Around 97% of Ladakh’s population is tribal; inclusion could provide self-governance, land protection, and cultural preservation.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2025) Q. Consider the following statements regarding Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution: I. If an area in a State is declared as a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule, the State Government loses its executive power, and a local body assumes total administration of such areas. II. The Union Government can take over total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendation of the Governor. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II |
9. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Genuine green crackers can be identified by specific packaging features.
Statement II: The packaging displays the ‘Green Fireworks’ logo along with ‘CSIR-NEERI’ branding.
Statement III: QR code on the packaging provides details about the manufacturer, formulation, and NEERI certification status of the product.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Explanation:
In NEWS: How to identify genuine ‘green’ crackers approved for sale in Delhi-NCR?
Green Crackers:
- Green crackers are specially designed fireworks aimed at reducing the environmental impact of traditional firecrackers.
- These eco-friendly alternatives minimize air and noise pollution during festivals like Diwali.
How to Identify Genuine Green Crackers
- Official Green Fireworks Logo: Ensure the packaging displays the ‘Green Fireworks’ logo along with ‘CSIR-NEERI’ branding.
- Verified QR Code: Scan the QR code on the packaging using the ‘CSIR-NEERI Green QR Code’ mobile app. This will provide details about the manufacturer, formulation, and NEERI certification status of the product.
Hence both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Types of Green Crackers
There are three primary types, each designed to reduce pollution:
- SWAS (Safe Water Releaser): Releases water vapor, reducing particulate emissions by up to 30%.
- STAR (Safe Thermite Cracker): Also releases water vapor and produces less noise.
- SAFAL (Safe Minimal Aluminium): Uses magnesium instead of aluminum to lower pollutant levels.
Sale and Usage Guidelines
- Green crackers can only be sold by licensed traders at designated sale points.
- Sale is permitted only during specific periods around festivals, usually for a few days.
- Sale of crackers via online platforms is prohibited.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2016) Q. On which of the following can you find the Bureau of Energy Efficiency Star Label? 1. Ceiling fans 2. Electric geysers 3. Tubular fluorescent lamps Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
10. Consider the following statements:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
- The Asiatic lion (Panthera leo persica) is naturally found only in the Gir Forest of Gujarat, India.
- The double-humped camel (Bactrian camel) is native to Central Asia (Mongolia and China), not India.
- The one-horned rhinoceros (Indian rhinoceros or greater one-horned rhino) is found in India and Nepal (especially in Kaziranga, Pobitora, and Chitwan National Park in Nepal).
Hence option (a) is correct.