01.With reference to SDG India Index 2023-24,consider the following statements:

  1. It measures and tracks national progress of all States and UTs on 113 indicators aligned to the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation’s (MoSPI) National Indicator Framework.
  2. The SDG India Index computes goal-wise scores on the 16 SDGs for each State and UT.
  3.  NITI Aayog has the twin mandate to oversee the adoption and monitoring of the SDGs in the country and promote competitive and cooperative federalism among States and UTs

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None

Answer:  (c)All three

In News: Release of SDG India Index 2023-24

Explanation:

  • SDG India Index 2023-24, the fourth edition of the country’s principal tool for measuring national and subnational progress on the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) was released today by NITI Aayog. 
  • The Index was launched by Shri Suman Bery, Vice Chairperson, NITI Aayog in the presence of Shri B. V. R. Subrahmanyam, CEO, NITI Aayog; Shri Shombi Sharp, UN Resident Coordinator in India; Dr. Yogesh Suri, Senior Advisr, NITI Aayog and Ms. Isabelle Tschan Harada, Deputy Resident Representative, UNDP.
  •  SDG India Index 2023-24 measures and tracks national progress of all States and UTs on 113 indicators aligned to the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation’s (MoSPI) National Indicator Framework (NIF).Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The SDG India Index computes goal-wise scores on the 16 SDGs for each State and UT.Hence statement 2 is correct. 
  • Overall State and UT scores or Composite Scores are generated from goal-wise scores to measure the aggregate performance of the sub-national unit based on its performance across the 16 SDGs. 
  • These scores range between 0–100, and if a State/UT achieves a score of 100, it signifies it has achieved the targets. The higher the score of a State/UT, the greater the distance covered to the target.
  • India’s commitment to the SDGs since adopting the 2030 Agenda on Sustainable Development is reflected in concerted efforts on SDG localisation spearheaded by NITI Aayog, which works closely with States and UTs. 
  • NITI Aayog has the twin mandate to oversee the adoption and monitoring of the SDGs in the country and promote competitive and cooperative federalism among States and UTs.Hence statement 3 is correct. 
  • Together with States and UTs, NITI Aayog has focused on the institutionalisation of the SDGs – not only to look at sustainable development as a standalone or parallel framework, but also to make them an integral part of national and subnational thinking about development through institutional ownership, collaborative competition, capacity development, and following a whole-of- society approach.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2032857

02. Consider the following:

SDG Goal                                         Focused Area

  1. Goal 13                   –       Climate Action           
  2. Goal 8                     –       Decent Work and Economic Growth
  3. Goal 7                      –      Affordable and Clean Energy     

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1,2, 3 

Answer:  (d)1,2, 3 

In News:India Accelerates Progress towards the SDGs Despite Global Headwinds

Explanation:

  • The launch of the SDG India Index in 2018 provided the impetus for the localisation push, reaffirming States and UTs as key stakeholders in this transformative journey. 
  • The SDG India Index has been consistently improved over the years to provide a comprehensive and comparative analysis of progress on the goals.
  •  By fostering collaborative competition, the Index not only highlights achievements, but also encourages States and UTs to learn from each other to close outcome-based gaps. 
  • Grounded in the globally accepted SDSN methodology, the development of the Index followed extensive consultations with the States and UTs (the primary stakeholders); MoSPI; Union Ministries; and UN agencies. 
  • The Index represents the articulation of the comprehensive nature of the Global Goals under the 2030 Agenda while being attuned to the national priorities.
  • India has taken significant strides in accelerating progress on the SDGs between the 2020-21 and 2023-24 editions of the Index. 
  • Noteworthy advancements have been observed in Goals 1 (No Poverty), 8 (Decent Work and Economic Growth), 13 (Climate Action). These are now in the ‘Front Runner’ category (a score between 65–99).
  • Among these, Goal 13 (Climate Action) has shown the most substantial improvement, with its score increasing from 54 to 67.
  • Goal 1 (No Poverty) follows closely, with its score rising significantly from 60 to 72. 
  • The progress underscores the effects of the focused programmatic interventions and schemes of the Union and State Governments in improving the lives of citizens.
  • Since 2018, India has witnessed substantial progress in several key SDGs. Significant progress has been made in Goals 1 (No Poverty), 3 (Good Health and Well-being), 6 (Clean Water and Sanitation), 7 (Affordable and Clean Energy), 9 (Industry, Innovation and Infrastructure) and 11 (Sustainable Cities and Communities).Hence option(d) is correct.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2032857

03. Consider the following statements:

  1. The all-India IIP provides a single representative figure to measure the general level of industrial activity in the economy on a monthly basis.
  2. The all-India IIP forms a crucial input for compilation of Gross Value Added of Manufacturing sector in Gross Domestic Product of the country on quarterly basis

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (c) Both 1 and 2

In News:India’s IIP records a growth of 5.9% in the May 2024

Explanation:

  • The Quick Estimates of Index of Industrial Production (IIP) are released on 12th of every month (or previous working day if 12th is a holiday) with a six weeks lag and compiled with data received from source agencies, which in turn receive the data from the producing factories/ establishments. 
  • These Quick Estimates will undergo revision in subsequent releases as per the revision policy of IIP.
  • The all-India IIP provides a single representative figure to measure the general level of industrial activity in the economy on a monthly basis.Hence statement 1 is correct.  
  • It is used by Government agencies/ departments especially the Ministry of Finance, the Reserve Bank of India, etc. for policy purposes. 
  • The all-India IIP forms a crucial input for compilation of Gross Value Added of Manufacturing sector in Gross Domestic Product of the country on quarterly basis.Hence statement 2 is correct. 
  •  It is also used extensively by financial intermediaries, policy analysts and private companies for various analytical purposes suited for their requirements.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2032770

04. This is the first Greenfield port project in India, initiated by a state Government,Developed under the Public Private Partnership (PPP) mode, it stands as one of the largest initiatives in the country’s port sector.

  1. Mundra
  2. Vizhinjam
  3. Kakinada
  4. Gangavaram

Answer:  (b) Vizhinjam

In News:Union Minister Shri Sarbananda Sonowal receives First Mother Ship at Vizhinjam- India’s first deep water Container Transhipment Port

Explanation:

  • The Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways, Shri Sarbananda Sonowal received the first Mother Ship  ‘MV San Fernando’ marking the beginning of operation at India’s First deep water container transhipment port in Vizhinjam, Kerala.
  • The ship, with a capacity upto 9000 TEUs, docks at India’s first automated port which is equipped with state of the art that offers large scale automation for quick turnaround of vessels including capacity to handle megamax containerships. 
  • Vizhinjam Port is a strategic maritime project near Thiruvananthapuram in Kerala. This is the first Greenfield port project in India, initiated by a state Government with an investment exceeding ₹18,000 crores. 
  • Developed under the Public Private Partnership (PPP) mode, it stands as one of the largest initiatives in the country’s port sector.Hence option(b) is correct.
  •  Vizhinjam’s strategic location near international shipping routes significantly reduces transit times for vessels, making it a pivotal point for maritime trade. 
  • As one of India’s few natural deep-water ports, it can efficiently accommodate large cargo and container ships. 
  • The development of the Vizhinjam International Seaport is poised to boost Kerala’s economic growth by creating jobs, enhancing trade, and attracting investments. 
  • Ongoing infrastructure projects aim to equip the port with state-of-the-art facilities, including modern container terminals, warehouses, and logistics parks.
  •  Vizhinjam is set to become a key player in regional trade, potentially serving as a gateway for commerce between Southeast Asia, the Middle East, and Africa.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2032811

05. With reference toNational Traders’ Welfare Board,consider the following statements:

  1. The Board consists of the One Chairperson and Up to 10 members representing Trade Associations.
  2. The first meeting of the National Traders’ Welfare Board constituted by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade  was held in 2023.
  3. The objective is to make recommendations regarding social security benefits like insurance, pension, healthcare for traders and their employees.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None

Answer:  (c)All three

In News:First Meeting of National Traders’ Welfare Board held

Explanation:

  • The first meeting of the National Traders’ Welfare Board (NTWB), constituted by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), was held on 5th December, 2023 at Vanijya Bhawan, New Delhi under the chairmanship of Shri Sunil J. Singhi.Hence statement 1 is correct.  
  • The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade had constituted National Traders’ Welfare Board for the Welfare of Traders and their employees. 
  • NTWB has been constituted to advise the Government for the fulfilment of the following objectives:
  • To identify policy measures to achieve the objective of welfare of traders and their employees.
  • To suggest simplifications in the Acts and Rules applicable to traders.
  • To make recommendations to reduce the compliance burden of traders.
  • To improve access to funds for traders.
  • To make recommendations regarding social security benefits like insurance, pension, healthcare etc., for traders and their employees.Hence statement 3 is correct.  
  • To make recommendations to address any other problems and issues of traders and their employees.
  • The Board consist of the following members:
  • One Chairperson (Non-Official)
  • Up to 5 members (Non-Official) having special knowledge of matters relating to the technical or other aspects of retail trade
  • Up to 10 members (Non-Official) representing Trade Associations.Hence statement 2 is correct.  
  • One Non-Official member representing each State and Union Territory
  • 9 Ex-officio representatives from Ministries/Departments.
  • Joint Secretary, DPIIT (dealing with Internal Trade) shall be the Convener of the Board.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2032742

06. With reference to Vibrant Villages Programme,consider the following statements:

  1. The objective of the programme is comprehensive development of these villages to improve the quality of life of people & thereby reversing outmigration.
  2. It has been conceived as an outcome oriented programme with outcome indicators at three levels- village, household & individual beneficiary.
  3. One of the sectors identified for development is promotion of tourism and culture by augmentation of various tourism related infrastructure.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None

Answer:  (c) All three

In News:Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation, Shri Amit Shah reviews the implementation of ‘Vibrant Villages Programme’ at a high-level meeting in New Delhi today

Explanation:

  • Government has approved Vibrant Villages Programme(VVP) as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme on 15th February, 2023, with  financial outlay of ₹4800 crore for the FY 2022-23 to 2025-26, for  comprehensive development  of  the  select  villages  in  46  blocks in 19 districts abutting northern border in the States of  Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand and UT of Ladakh.
  • The objective of the programme is comprehensive development of these villages to improve the quality of life of people & thereby reversing out migration.Hence statement 1 is correct.  
  • The programme envisages focused areas of interventions for creation of opportunities for livelihood generation through promotion of agriculture, horticulture, tourism & cultural heritage, skill development and entrepreneurship, development of co-operative societies for managing livelihood opportunities including agriculture/horticulture, cultivation of medicinal plants/herbs, road connectivity, housing & village infrastructure, energy including renewable energy, television & telecom connectivity, financial inclusion, etc.
  • One of the sectors identified for development is promotion of tourism and culture by augmentation of various tourism related infrastructure, promoting community managed home stays, organising local fairs & festivals, promotion of eco-tourism, agro-tourism, wellness, wildlife, spiritual& adventure tourism, promotion of local cuisines, etc.Hence statement 2 is correct.  
  • VVP has been conceived as an outcome oriented programme with outcome indicators at three levels- village, household & individual beneficiary.Hence statement 3 is correct. 

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1985867

07. Consider the following:

  1. Unit Sale Price
  2. Year of manufacture
  3. Net quantity
  4. Address of the manufacturer

How many of the above are mandatory under The Legal Metrology Packaged Commodities Rules, 2011?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. All four

Answer:  (d)All four

In News:Department of Consumer Affairs, Government of India proposes amendment in Legal Metrology (Packaged Commodities) Rules, 2011

Explanation:

  • Keeping in view of the growing ambit of the market including both offline and online platforms, the Department of Consumer Affairs, Government of India is considering an amendment in the Legal Metrology (Packaged Commodities) Rules, 2011 to establish uniformity for packaged commodities. 
  •  The revised provision will provide that these Rules shall apply to all packaged commodities sold in bags in retail, except to the packaged commodities meant for the industrial consumers or institutional consumers.
  • This revised provision will help in establishing uniform standards/ requirements for packaged commodities, promoting consistency and fairness across different brands and products and will help consumers in making informed choices based on complete information.
  • The Department invites comments from stakeholders within 15 days, up to July 29, 2024.
  • The Legal Metrology (Packaged Commodities) Rules, 2011 requires for declaration of mandatory information like name and address of the manufacturer/ packer/ importer, country of origin, common or generic name of the commodity, net quantity, month and year of manufacture, MRP, Unit Sale Price, best before/ use by date in case of commodity become unfit for human consumption, consumer care details etc. on all pre-packaged commodities in the interest of consumers.Hence option(d) is correct.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2033114

08. Consider the following statements:

  1. Commemorative coins are often issued in very small quantities, and kept by the RBI as uncirculated collectors’ items.
  2. The Reserve Bank of India which ultimately decides whether to issue a commemorative coin or not.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (a)1 only

In News:How commemorative coins serve as publicity tools

Explanation:

  • As the name suggests, commemorative or ceremonial coins are issued to commemorate a certain event, celebrate a certain person, or further a certain message. 
  • They have a distinctive design, which references the occasion for which they were issued, and are often of a different (generally, larger) denomination, than regular coins.
  • Commemorative coins are often issued in very small quantities, and kept by the RBI as uncirculated collectors’ items.Hence statement 1 is correct.   
  • Sometimes, however, they can also be meant for mass circulation. This depends on the Centre’s intention behind issuing a certain coin.
  • Since ancient times, coins have been used as tools to disseminate the rulers’ message, and further their image, often, quite literally. 
  • Philologist Thomas R Martin argued that the mobility of coins and their durable nature makes them one of the most desirable tools of publicity.
  • The sole authority to print or mint any Indian currency lies with the Reserve Bank of India, which works under the Union Finance Ministry. 
  • Thus, it is the Union Finance Ministry which ultimately decides whether to issue a commemorative coin or not.Hence statement 2 is correct.  
  • However, state governments, government-run cultural institutions, or even private organisations can request the government to issue commemorative coins.
  •  For instance, in Subbalakshmi’s case, the request was made by the Sri Shanmukhananda Fine Arts & Sangeetha Sabha. For the Karunanidhi commemorative coins, the request came from the Tamil Nadu government last year.

Source:

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/ceremonial-rs-100-coin-commemorative-karunanidhi-9450791/

09. The species Dalbergia, Afzelia, Khaya and Pterocarpus are

  1. Mahogany
  2. Rose wood
  3. Teak 
  4. Deodar Cedar

Answer:  (b)Rose wood

In News:CITES defines guidelines on trade of rosewood species

Explanation:

  • The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) has issued guidelines for its members involved in the sustainable harvest and trade of rosewood specimens.
  • CITES oversees the international trade of various rosewood species, including those in the genera Dalbergia, Afzelia, Khaya and Pterocarpus. Currently, these species are listed in Appendix II, indicating they are not immediately threatened with extinction but could be at risk if their trade is not regulated.Hence option(b) is correct.
  • The guidelines were issued in July during the 27th meeting of the Plants Committee. The secretariat was instructed to focus on capacity-building efforts for CITES-listed rosewood species, targeting 13 high-priority and 14 medium-priority species identified in the Report on the conservation and trade of CITES-listed rosewood tree species 
  • It identifies the country of origin and species vulnerability according to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and conservation priority. The report also outlines the species’ characteristics, their ecological roles, regeneration rates, and global trade levels, both legal and illegal.
  • CITES stated that this information is vital for CITES Scientific Authorities to create NDFs and assess the volume of timber of CITES-listed Rosewood species that can be exported while ensuring their long-term survival in the wild. It also aims to help CITES parties gather species information to prepare informed NDFs and determine export quotas.

Source:

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/cites-defines-guidelines-on-trade-of-rosewood-species

10.Consider the following statements:(2024)

Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.

Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1.  Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I explains Statement-II
  2.  Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  3.  Statement-1 is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  4.  Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans : (c)Statement-1 is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

Explanation: 

  • Recently, the European Parliament approved the Net-Zero industry Act to bolster EU production in technologies needed for decarbonisation.
  • The European Union has said, “it is aiming to become the first major economy to go “climate neutral” by 2050”.Hence, option C is correct.

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