1. Information Technology Rules, 2023

Q. With reference to the Information Technology Rules, 2023, consider the following statements.

Statement I:

The government can ask social media platforms to remove any online content pertaining to its business that it deems to be false or misleading.

Statement II:

The new IT Rules (2023) empowers the Centre to set up a fact check unit (FCU

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. 

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Bombay HC strikes down amended IT rules

  • The revised rules violate right to equality and freedom of speech guaranteed by Constitution, says ‘tie-breaker judge’; they had empowered the Centre to set up a fact check unit to identify ‘fake’ news 
  • The Bombay High Court struck down the amended Information Technology Rules, 2023, which empowered the Centre to set up a fact check unit (FCU) to identify fake, false and misleading information about the government and its establishments on social media. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Justice Chandurkar said the Information Technology [Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code] Amendment Rules, 2023, violated “Article 14 (right to equality), 19 (freedom of speech and expression) and 19(1)(g) (freedom and right to profession) of the Constitution”.
  • The expression “fake, false and misleading” in the rules was “vague and hence wrong” in the absence of any definition, he added. “The impugned Rule also results in a chilling effect as an intermediary”.
  • According to the new IT Rules (2023), the government can ask social media platforms such as Facebook, X, Instagram, Youtube to remove any content/ news related to the ‘business of the Central government’ that was identified as ‘fake, false, or misleading’ with the help of FCU. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • An organisation appointed by the government will be the arbiter of such content, and if intermediaries do not comply with the organisation’s decision, they may lose their safe harbour status under Section 79 of the IT Act, 2000. 
PYQ REFERENCE:Q. Consider the following statements:Statement-I:In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.Statement-II:In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/bombay-hc-strikes-down-amended-it-rules-terms-them-unconstitutional/article68663999.ece 

https://www.epw.in/journal/2023/43/commentary/it-amendment-rules-2023.html

2. Triglycerides

Q. Consider the following statements.

  1. Triglycerides are a type of sugar molecule that circulates in the blood.
  2. Unused calories are stored as triglycerides, which will be released when the body needs energy.
  3. High blood triglycerides can increase the risk of serious complications like coronary heart disease and stroke.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Samples of ghee used by TTD contained ‘foreign fat’, says lab analysis. Compliance with the standards applicable for the determination of fat in milk and its products (ISO 17678:2019) is examined through gas chromatographic analysis of triglycerides.

About Triglycerides:

  • Triglycerides are a type of fat, called lipid , that circulate in the blood. They are the most common type of fat in our body. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Triglycerides come from foods, especially butter, oils, and other fats you eat. Triglycerides also come from extra calories your body does not need right away. 
  • Unused calories are stored as triglycerides in fat cells. When your body needs energy, it releases the triglycerides. Some triglycerides are important for good health. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • However, high triglyceride levels in your blood can raise your risk of heart disease and stroke. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • High blood triglycerides are a type of lipid disorder. This condition can develop on its own, with other lipid disorders like high blood cholesterol or low  HDL cholesterol , or as part of metabolic syndrome. 
  • High blood triglyceride levels are very common. Up to one in four adults are affected. Some health conditions and medicines, genes, and lifestyle habits can raise your risk for high blood triglycerides. Heart-healthy lifestyle changes may lower triglycerides in your blood.
  • Triglycerides are different from cholesterol. Cholesterol is a waxy, fat-like substance found in all the cells of the body. Levels of triglycerides and blood cholesterol are checked using blood tests.

Healthy blood triglyceride levels:

  • Healthy: Below 150 milligrams per deciliter (mg/dL) for adults; lower than 90 mg/dL for children and teens (ages 10-19)
  • Borderline high: Between 150 and 199 mg/dL
  • High: Between 200 and 499 mg/dL
  • Very high: Above 500 mg/dL

Source: 

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tirumala-laddus-row-samples-of-ghee-used-by-ttd-contained-foreign-fat-says-nddb-report/article68662867.ece

https://www.nhlbi.nih.gov/health/high-blood-triglycerides#:~:text=Triglycerides%20are%20a%20type%20of,and%20other%20fats%20you%20eat.

3. PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana

Q. Which one of the following is the purpose of PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana?

(a) Providing technical and financial assistance to startup entrepreneurs in the field of renewable sources of energy.

(b) Providing electricity to every household in the country by 2030.

(c) Replacing the coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a period of time.

(d) Providing subsidies to households to install solar panels on their roofs.

Answer: Providing subsidies to households to install solar panels on their roofs.

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Blockchain, smart materials, among innovative projects mooted in PM solar scheme

  • The PM Surya Ghar scheme was established on February 29, 2024 to increase the share of solar rooftop capacity and have residential households generate their own electricity. Hence option (d) is correct.
  • The scheme has an outlay of ₹75,021 crore and is to be implemented till FY 2026-27.
  • As part of the ₹75,000-crore PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana, the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has announced a ₹500-crore sub-component for “Innovative Projects”, according to a draft notification from the Ministry.
  • Under this programme, companies and individuals can submit proposals, which will be perused by a committee, to execute novel ideas connected to rooftop solar installations.
  • Some examples of innovative projects envisioned include “…blockchain-based peer-to-peer RTS [Rooftop Solar], digital solutions for RTS, smart building materials, RTS with EV (electric vehicles), grid responsive RTS with battery storage solutions, DISCOM (Distribution Company) systems for RTS management”.
  • The scheme provides subsidised RTS installation with a maximum of ₹78,000 per household. In a departure from previous schemes, those interested can apply to vendors of their choice online as well as avail of subsidised loans from banks for installation.
PYQ REFERENCE:Q. Which one of the following is the purpose of ‘UDAY’, a scheme of the Government?(a) Providing technical and financial assistance to startup entrepreneurs in the field of renewable sources of energy(b) Providing electricity to every household in the countries by 2018(c) Replacing the coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a period of time(d) Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/blockchain-smart-materials-among-list-of-innovate-projects-mooted-in-pm-solar-scheme/article68664539.ece 

4. Coffee exports in India

Q. Consider the following States

1. Tamil Nadu

2. Kerala

3. Karnataka 

4. Odisha 

How many of the above are generally known as Coffee-producing States?

(a) Only one State

(b) Only two States

(c) Only three States

(d) All four States

Answer: (d) All four States

Explanation: 

In NEWS: ‘Coffee exporters eye 60% from value-added beans’ 

  • Export of value-added coffees is projected to be 60% of total coffee exports in volume by 2047.
  • Roadmap for the Plantation Sector Towards 2047: By 2047, total coffee production is expected to increase to nine lakh tonnes from 3.6 lakh tonnes now and area will be eight lakh ha from 4.8 lakh ha. Almost 99% of the holdings are with small growers.
  • Our vision statement is to position India as a country of eco-friendly, sustainable, premium coffees and a country of great coffee culture

Coffee Industry and Exports:

  • India became the world’s eighth largest coffee grower during 2022-2023.
  • Indian coffee is one of the best coffees in the world owing to its high quality and pertains to be premium in the international markets. 
  • India produces two types of coffee: Arabica and Robusta. 
  • Arabica has a higher market value than Robusta coffee due to its mild aromatic flavour. 
  • Robusta coffee is used in making various blends due to its strong flavour. Robusta is a majorly manufactured coffee with a share of 72% of the total production of Indian coffee. 
  • India is considered the fifth largest producer of Robusta coffee globally. 
  • The industry provides direct employment to more than 2 million people in India. 
  • Since coffee is an export commodity for India, domestic demand and consumption do not drastically impact the prices of coffee.
  • Coffee is produced in the southern part of India.
    • Karnataka is the largest producer accounting for about 71% of the total coffee production in India. 
    • Kerala is the second-largest producer of coffee but accounts only for about 20% of the total production. 
    • Tamil Nadu is the third-largest producer with 5% of India’s total coffee production. Half of Tamil Nadu’s coffee is made in the Nilgiri district, a major Arabica growing region. 
    • Odisha and the north-eastern areas have a smaller proportion of production. 

Hence all the statements are correct.

PYQ REFERENCE:Q. Consider the following States1. Andhra Pradesh2. Kerala3. Himachal Pradesh4. TripuraHow many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?(a) Only one State(b) Only two States(c) Only three States(d) All four States

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/value-added-coffees-to-be-60-of-coffee-exports-by-2047/article68664673.ece 

5. Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskars (RVP) awards:

Q. Consider the following pairs with reference  to Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar awards in the field of Science, technology, and innovation in India.

S.noName of the AwardCategory of achievement
Vigyan RatnaFor lifetime achievement 
Vigyan ShriDistinguished contributions in any field of science and technology
Vigyan Yuva-Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar For young scientists up to the age of 45

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Why two dozen top scientists have expressed concern over the country’s flagship science awards

About Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskars (RVP):

  • The awards have been instituted to “recognise notable and inspiring contributions made by scientists, technologists, and innovators individually or in teams in various fields of science, technology and technology-led innovation”.
  • The awards, described in the release as “one of the highest recognitions in the field of science, technology, and innovation in India”, have been instituted in four categories:
    • Vigyan Ratna (VR) for lifetime achievement; 
    • Vigyan Shri (VS) for “distinguished contributions in any field of science and technology”;
    • Vigyan Yuva-Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (VY-SSB) award for young scientists up to the age of 45, which has replaced the SSB award; and 
    • Vigyan Team (VT) for a collaboration among three or more scientists, researchers, or innovators. 

Hence all the pairs are correct.

  • Up to 56 prizes can be given across these categories annually. For the inaugural year, 33 awards were announced on August 7 — one Vigyan Ratna, 13 Vigyan Shris, 18 VY-SSB awards, and a Team award to the Chandrayaan-3 team.
  • These inaugural awards cover 13 domains: physics, chemistry, biological sciences, mathematics & computer science, earth science, medicine, engineering sciences, agricultural science, environmental science, technology and innovation, atomic energy, space science and technology, and “others”.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/india-science-awards-9578797/ 

6. International Big Cat Alliance 

Q.Consider the following animals.

  1. Tiger
  2. Lion
  3. Snow leopard
  4. Leopard
  5. Jaguar
  6. Puma
  7. Cheetah 

Among the world’s seven big cats protected under the International Big Cat Alliance, which of the following animals are found in India?

  1. 1, 2, 3, 5, and 6 Only 
  2. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 Only
  3. 1, 2, 4, 6, and 7 Only
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 7 Only

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 7 Only 

Explanation: 

In NEWS: India formally joins International Big Cat Alliance 

  • Four nations, including India, Nicaragua, Eswatini and Somalia, have become the IBCA members now. In April 2023, PM Narendra Modi had launched the IBCA with an aim to secure the future of big cats and their landscapes.
  • Among the seven big cats, five — tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard and cheetah — are found in India, excluding puma and jaguar. Hence option (d) is correct.
  • The framework agreement is intended to establish the IBCA to address common challenges for the protection and conservation of seven big cats in the world.

About International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA): 

  • International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) is a mega global alliance launched by India in April 2023 during the 50th anniversary of Project Tiger. 
  • The alliance aims at conservation of the world’s seven principal big cats, which include the tiger, lion, snow leopard, leopard, jaguar, puma, and cheetah. 
  • Through the alliance, the member nations will exchange experiences, provide faster assistance to their neighbours, and place a strong emphasis on capacity building.
  • The Intergovernmental body will have 97 countries with many Asian and African countries becoming a part of the alliance. Standard operating procedures will be created by the alliance and used by all members as a guide.
  • There will also be a list of dos and don’ts that will instruct nations on how to stop illegal wildlife trading and poaching. 
  • The idea holds that once illegal wildlife trade is reduced, poaching will eventually come to an end.
  • The IBCA is anticipated to be self-sustaining after the first five years, which will be supported by India’s “total grant assistance” of $100 million, through membership fees, contributions from bilateral and multilateral organisations, and the private sector.
PYQ REFERENCE:Q. Consider the following animals:1. Hedgehog2. Marmot3. PangolinTo reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/ protect its/their vulnerable parts?a) 1 and 2b) 2 onlyc) 3 onlyd) 1 and 3

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/international-big-cat-alliance-big-cat-conservation-tiger-lion-leopard-snow-leopard-cheetah-9579856/ 

7. Lokpal

Q. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Lokpal’:

  1. It aims to inquire into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries and for related matters.
  2. It cannot inquire into allegations against the PM relating to international relations, external and internal security, public order, atomic energy, and space.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: 

In NEWS: ‘Articulate allegations that constitute graft’: Lokpal to complainants against SEBI chief

  • The Lokpal headed by former Supreme Court judge AM Khanwilkar Friday asked complainants to back up their corruption claims against Madhabi Puri Buch, the chairperson of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
  • Although the 11-page order has redacted the names of both the complainants and the subject of the complaint — the SEBI chairperson — the complaint itself is reproduced in its entirety.

About Lokpal:

  • It is a statutory body established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act 2013.
  • It aims to inquire into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries and for related matters. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The Lokpal consists of a chairperson and a maximum of eight members. 
  • The Chairperson should be either the former Chief Justice of India, or a former Judge of the Supreme Court, or an eminent person who fulfils the eligibility criteria as specified. 
  • Out of the maximum eight members, half will be judicial members. The judicial member of the Lokpal should be either a former Judge of the Supreme Court or a former Chief Justice of a High Court. 
  • A minimum of fifty per cent of the Members will be from SC / ST / OBC / Minorities and women. 

Appointment of the members: 

  • The Chairperson and the Members are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a selection committee composed of the Prime Minister as the Chairperson, the Speaker of Lok Sabha, the Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, the Chief Justice of India or a Judge nominated by him/her, and one eminent jurist.
  • They hold office for a term of five years from the date on which they enter upon the office or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. 
  • The salary, allowances, and other conditions of services of the Chairperson are the same as that of the Chief Justice of India.
  • The salary, allowances, and other conditions of services of the members are the same as that of a Judge of the Supreme Court.

Jurisdiction:

  • It can inquire into allegations of corruption against anyone who is or has been Prime Minister, a Minister in the Union government, or a Member of Parliament, as well as officials of the Union Government under Groups A, B, C, and D. 
  • It covers chairpersons, members, officers, and directors of any board, corporation, society, trust, or autonomous body either established by an Act of Parliament or wholly or partly funded by the Union or State government.
  • It also covers any society, trust, or body that receives a foreign contribution above Rs 10 lakh.

Exceptions for Prime Minister:

  • Lokpal cannot inquire into allegations against the PM relating to international relations, external and internal security, public order, atomic energy, and space. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Also, complaints against the PM are not to be probed unless the full Lokpal bench considers the initiation of the inquiry and at least 2/3rds of the members approve it. 

Powers of Lokpal:

  • It has powers to superintendence over and to give direction to the CBI.
  • If it has referred a case to the CBI, the investigating officer in such a case cannot be transferred without the approval of Lokpal.
  • Powers to authorize CBI for search and seizure operations connected to such cases.
  • The Inquiry Wing of the Lokpal has been vested with the powers of a civil court.
  • Lokpal has powers of confiscation of assets, proceeds, receipts, and benefits arisen or procured by means of corruption in special circumstances.
  • Lokpal has the power to recommend the transfer or suspension of public servants connected with the allegation of corruption.
  • Lokpal has the power to give directions to prevent the destruction of records during the preliminary inquiry.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/articulate-allegations-lokpal-to-complainants-against-sebi-chief-9579796/ 

8. U.S.-India Strategic Clean Energy Partnership

Q. Which of the following pillars is not a part of the U.S.-India Strategic Clean Energy Partnership?

  1. Power & Energy Efficiency
  2. Responsible Oil & Gas
  3. Nuclear Energy
  4. Renewable Energy

Answer: (c) Nuclear Energy

Explanation: 

In NEWS: The Strategic Clean Energy Partnership (SCEP) Ministerial was convened by U.S. Energy Secretary Jennifer Granholm and Indian Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas Hardeep Singh Puri in Washington D.C, yesterday.

  • The sides reviewed the initiatives undertaken across the technical pillars under the SCEP, including Power & Energy Efficiency, Responsible Oil & Gas, Renewable Energy, Emerging Fuels & Technologies, and Sustainable Growth. 

Hence option (c) is correct.

  • The ministers welcomed progress made under the partnership to drive clean energy innovation, strengthen energy security, and accelerate clean energy transitions, including through more focused efforts on clean energy manufacturing and building resilient, responsible, stable, secure and diversified supply chains.

Specific Initiatives and Collaborations: 

  • Renewable Energy Technology Action Platform (RETAP):
    • Launched in August 2023.
    • Focus on hydrogen, long-duration energy storage, offshore wind, and geothermal energy.
  • National Centre for Hydrogen Safety:
    • New collaboration in India.
    • Promoting green hydrogen usage in transport (buses, tractors, heavy equipment).
  • Energy Storage Task Force:
    • Addressing policy frameworks, safety, and innovative business models for energy storage.
    • Supporting projects in Assam and Haryana.
  • Modernizing Power Distribution:
    • Emphasis on 24/7 reliable power supply.
    • Support for smart metering and cybersecurity.
  • Indian Railways’ Net Zero Commitment:
    • Collaboration on renewable energy procurement and energy efficiency policies.
  • Sustainable Aviation Fuels (SAF):
    • Inaugural SAF workshop and development of joint reports on SAF and biofuels.
  • Electrification of Vehicles:
    • Workshops on medium- and heavy-duty vehicles.
    • Support for the PM eBus Sewa scheme (10,000 e-buses).
  • Carbon Capture, Utilization, and Storage (CCUS):
    • Stakeholder engagement and technical cooperation on geologic carbon storage.
  • Methane Abatement in Oil and Gas:
    • Cooperation with the Directorate General of Hydrocarbons.
    • Collaborative Research and Investment
  • US-India Collaborative for Smart Distribution System with Storage (UI-ASSIST):
    • Advanced R&D on smart grid and energy storage technologies.
  • Investment Growth:
    • Increased investments in clean energy, including a significant Indian investment in a solar module facility in Texas.
  • Memoranda of Understanding:
    • New agreements in emissions measurement and methane abatement.
    • Commitment to Energy Transition
    • Recognition that a successful energy transition requires local and national action.
    • Focus on capacity building and sharing best practices.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2055504# 

9. ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA)

Q. With reference to the ‘ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA)’, consider the following statements.

  1. It is a trade deal between the member states of ASEAN and India for both goods and services.
  2. Under the Agreement, ASEAN Member States and India have agreed to open their respective markets by progressively reducing and eliminating duties on goods. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: 

In NEWS: Commerce and Industry Minister Shri Piyush Goyal co-chairs 21st ASEAN-India Economic Ministers meeting in Lao PDR 

ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA): 

  • The ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement was signed and entered into force on 1 January 2010.
  • The Agreement covers trade in physical goods and products; it does not apply to trade in services. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Under the Agreement, ASEAN Member States and India have agreed to open their respective markets by progressively reducing and eliminating duties on 76.4 coverage of good. Hence statement 2 is correct.

ASEAN-India Trade in Services Agreement: 

  • The ASEAN-India Trade in Services Agreement was signed in November 2014. It contains provisions on transparency, domestic regulations, recognition, market access, national treatment and dispute settlement. 

ASEAN-India Investment Agreement:

  • The ASEAN-India Investment Agreement was also signed in November 2014. The Investment Agreement stipulates protection of investment to ensure fair and equitable treatment for investors, non-discriminatory treatment in expropriation or nationalisation as well as fair compensation.

ASEAN-India Free Trade Agreement:

  • Economic co-operation activities under the AIFTA are now being undertaken on agriculture, fisheries and forestry; services; mining and energy; science and technology; transport and infrastructure; manufacturing; human resource development; and other sectors such as handicrafts, small and medium enterprises (SMEs), competition policy, Mekong Basin Development, intellectual property rights and government procurement.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2057216 

10. Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy? (UPSC PYQ 2021)

(a) A committed judiciary

(b) Centralization of powers

(c) Elected government

(d) Separation of powers

Answer: (d) Separation of powers

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