Daily Current Affairs – 11-09-2025

1. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Vice-President?

1. In the absence of the President due to death, resignation, removal, the Vice-President acts as the President of India until a new President is elected.

2. He/She can participate in the voting of the Rajya Sabha in all instances.

3. He/She presides over the joint sitting of the parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: The new Vice-President can help end combative hostilities in the Rajya Sabha

Functions of Vice-President:

• The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
• He/She presides over the Rajya Sabha and ensures its smooth functioning.
• The Vice-President maintains order and decorum in the Rajya Sabha.
• He/She decides on points of order raised in the House.
• The Vice-President has the casting vote in case of a tie in the Rajya Sabha.
• He/She does not participate in the voting of the Rajya Sabha except in the case of a tie. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• In the absence of the President due to death, resignation, removal, or otherwise, the Vice-President acts as the President of India until a new President is elected. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• During this period, the Vice-President enjoys all powers and functions of the President.
• The Vice-President also represents India on various occasions as assigned by the President.
• He/She performs ceremonial and constitutional duties when required.

Note: The presides over the joint sitting of the parliament. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/man-of-faith-on-cp-radhakrishnan-15th-vice-president-of-india/article70034055.ece

2. Which of the following thematic areas are covered under the BioE3 policy?

1. Bio-based chemicals and biopolymers

2. Smart proteins and functional foods

3. Precision biotherapeutics

4. Carbon capture and utilisation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

In NEWS: Under the BioE3 policy, the government plans to set up 16 biomanufacturing hubs across India to cut import dependence and boost manufacturing within the country.

BioE3 (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment and Employment):

• BioE3 is a policy approved by the Union Cabinet in August 2024. It stands for Biotechnology for Economy, Environment and Employment.
• The policy aims to foster high-performance biomanufacturing in India.
• It focuses on economic growth, environmental sustainability, and employment generation.
• The policy promotes innovation, R&D and entrepreneurship in biotechnology.
• It supports the concept of a circular bioeconomy and climate change mitigation.
• BioE3 will establish Biomanufacturing Hubs and Biofoundries to scale up technologies.
• It will create Bio-AI Hubs to integrate biotechnology with artificial intelligence.
• Thematic areas include bio-based chemicals, smart proteins, biopolymers, precision biotherapeutics, climate-resilient agriculture, carbon capture, marine and space research. Hence all the statements are correct.
• It encourages public-private partnerships in biomanufacturing.
• The policy emphasises regulatory reforms and inter-ministerial coordination.
• It aims to build a skilled workforce in the biomanufacturing sector.
• BioE3 is expected to boost green growth and support India’s net-zero targets.
• It will help in commercialising biotech innovations from lab to industry.
• The policy will generate new employment opportunities across the biotechnology value chain.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/upsc-current-affairs/upsc-essentials/knowledge-nugget-bioe3-policy-biotechnology-vigyan-dhara-upsc-10237007/

https://dbtindia.gov.in/news-features/cabinet-approves-bioe3-biotechnology-economy-environment-and-employment-policy

3. With reference to Equity Mutual Funds (MFs), consider the following statements:

1. As per SEBI regulations, they must invest at least 65% of their assets in equities and equity-related instruments.

2. They are considered suitable for short-term investment horizons of less than one year.

3. The returns from equity mutual funds are completely tax-free in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

In NEWS:

Equity Mutual Funds (MFs):

1. Definition – An equity mutual fund is a mutual fund that invests mostly in company shares (equities).

2. SEBI Rule – At least 65% of total assets must be invested in equities/equity-related instruments. Hence statement 1 is correct.

3. Objective – Provide long-term capital growth through stock market investments. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

4. Types by Market Cap

• Large-cap funds (stable, blue-chip companies)
  • Mid-cap funds (medium-sized companies, moderate risk/return)
  • Small-cap funds (high-growth, high-risk companies)
  • Multi-cap / Flexi-cap funds (mix of large, mid, and small caps)

5. Types by Strategy

• Sectoral/Thematic funds (IT, Pharma, Infrastructure, etc.)
  • Value/Growth funds (based on stock valuation styles)
  • Focused funds (limited number of companies)

6. Risk–Return Profile – Higher risk and volatility compared to debt funds, but with potential for higher long-term returns.

7. Time Horizon – Best suited for long-term investors (5+ years).

8. Taxation

• Short-Term Capital Gains (STCG): If redeemed within 1 year → taxed at 15%.
• Long-Term Capital Gains (LTCG): If redeemed after 1 year → gains above ₹1 lakh taxed at 10% (without indexation). Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/equity-mf-inflows-drop-22-mom-in-august-to-33430-crore-amfi-data/article70034836.ece#:~:text=Equity%20mutual%20fund%20(MF)%20inflows,India%20(AMFI)%20on%20Wednesday.

4. The Altai Gas Pipeline, often referred to as Power of Siberia 2, is a proposed natural gas pipeline between:

(a) Russia and India

(b) Russia and China

(c) Kazakhstan and China

(d) Turkmenistan and Afghanistan

Answer: (b) Russia and China

Explanation:

In NEWS: A pipeline deal to send Russian gas to China shows Beijing’s sway in ties

The Altai Gas Pipeline:

• The Altai Gas Pipeline is a proposed natural gas pipeline project between Russia and China. Hence option (b) is correct.
• It is also referred to as the Power of Siberia 2 pipeline.
• The pipeline is planned to run through the Altai region of Russia into Xinjiang province of China.
• It aims to deliver about 30 billion cubic meters (bcm) of natural gas per year to China.
• The project strengthens Russia–China energy cooperation, reducing China’s dependence on seaborne LNG imports.
• It also helps Russia diversify its energy exports away from Europe, especially after Western sanctions.
• The route is considered shorter and more cost-effective than other alternatives.
  Negotiations have been ongoing since 2006, but final agreements on pricing and construction timelines are still pending.
• The project is strategically significant as it would connect West Siberian gas fields (which earlier supplied Europe) to China.
• If completed, it will make China the largest importer of Russian natural gas.

Source: THE HINDU

5. Consider the following map:

With reference to the above map identify the location marked in 1 and 2?

(a) Palk Strait and Adam’s Bridge

(b) Malacca Strait  and Bering Strait

(c) Bosphorus Strait and Gulf of Sri Lanka

(d) Gulf of Bay and Strait of Gibraltar

Answer: (a) Palk Strait and Adam’s Bridge

Explanation:

In NEWS: The way forward on Katchatheevu, Palk Strait disputes

Hence option (a) is correct.

Significance of Palk Strait:

• Part of the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve (UNESCO-recognized).
• Adam’s Bridge / Ram Setu: Mythologically believed to have been built by Lord Rama’s army in the Hindu epic Ramayana.
• Strategic Region: Played roles in colonial trade routes and regional navigation.

Conflicting areas:

India–Sri Lanka Maritime Agreements

1. 1974 Agreement: India ceded Katchatheevu Island to Sri Lanka.

2. 1976 Agreement: Formal maritime boundary demarcated; both sides agreed not to allow fishing in each other’s waters.

Fishing Disputes

1. Indian fishermen often cross into Sri Lankan waters (rich in fish).

2. Sri Lanka arrests or detains Indian fishermen for illegal entry.

3. Major source of tension, especially for Tamil Nadu.

Sethusamudram Shipping Canal Project

1. A proposed canal through the Palk Strait to create a continuous sea route around India.

2. Would cut through Adam’s Bridge, raising:

• Religious objections (Hindu beliefs).
• Environmental concerns (coral reefs, marine life).
• Strategic concerns (Sri Lankan sensitivities).

Proposed Solutions (“The Way Forward”)

• Humane, Differentiated Approach: Recognize distinction between artisanal fishers (subsistence) and trawler operators (commercial). Provide transitional protection to small fishers.
• Dialogue Between Fisher Communities: Indian and Sri Lankan fisher organizations should agree on quotas, seasonal rights, and regulated access.
• Cultural Sensitisation & Fraternal Solidarity: Emphasize shared Tamil identity and mutual suffering (e.g., during Sri Lanka’s civil war). Use Tamil media, community leaders, and MPs to spread awareness.
• Joint Resource Management: Inspired by Baltic Sea models — shared quotas, deep-sea fishing promotion, marine research, and ecological preservation.
• De-politicising the Issue: Shift focus from populist “reclaim Katchatheevu” narratives to realistic diplomacy. Emphasize treaty obligations, quiet cooperation, and regional harmony.
• Multi-Level Diplomacy: Combine central government efforts with State/Provincial dialogues involving Tamil Nadu and Northern Provincial Council of Sri Lanka.

PYQ REFERENCE: (1997) Q. The following map shows four of the sixteen mahajanapadas that existed in ancient India: The places marked A, B, C and D respectively are: (a) Matsya, Chedi, Kosala, Anga (b) Surasena, Avanti, Vatsa, Magadha (c) Matsya, Avanti, Vatsa, Anga (d) Surasena, Chedi, Kosala, Magadha

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/the-way-forward-on-katchatheevu-palk-strait-disputes/article70034563.ece#:~:text=The%20way%20forward%20involves%20multiple,empathy%20that%20overcomes%20media%20distortions

6. With reference to Bandipur Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements:

1. It is a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.

2. The Kabini River flows through the reserve.

3. It was declared a Tiger Reserve under Project Tiger in 1973.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:

In NEWS: Elephant electrocuted in Bandipur Tiger Reserve

Bandipur Tiger Reserve:

• Bandipur Tiger Reserve is located in Karnataka, in the Chamarajanagar district.
• It is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, along with Nagarhole (Karnataka), Mudumalai (Tamil Nadu) and Wayanad (Kerala). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It lies at the confluence of the Deccan Plateau and the Western Ghats.
• The Kabini River flows through the northern boundary of the reserve. Hence statement 2 is correct.

History

• Bandipur was established as a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1931.
• It was upgraded to a National Park in 1974.
• In 1973, it was brought under Project Tiger and designated a Tiger Reserve. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Flora & Fauna

• Vegetation includes tropical deciduous forests, dry scrub, and grassy woodlands.
• Major fauna: Bengal tiger, Asian elephant, Indian leopard, sloth bear, dhole (wild dog), gaur (Indian bison), chital, sambhar deer.
• It is part of the largest contiguous tiger habitat in India (with Mudumalai, Nagarhole and Wayanad).

Conservation Significance

• It serves as a critical wildlife corridor of the Nilgiri Biosphere, ensuring genetic exchange of tigers and elephants.
• The reserve faces threats from forest fires, highway traffic (NH-766 and NH-67), human–wildlife conflict, and encroachment.

Source:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/elephant-electrocuted-in-karnatakas-bandipur-tiger-reserve/article70034412.ece#:~:text=An%20elephant%20was%20electrocuted%20on,in%20the%20Bandipur%20Tiger%20Reserve.

7. With reference to ‘COLP48’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is a global forum advancing maritime stability, security, and sustainable development.

2. It is the first time the COLP is hosted in the Indian subcontinent.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: For the First Time in Nearly 50 Years, India Hosted COLP48, Strengthening Its Role in Ocean Governance

COLP48 (48th Annual Conference on Oceans Law & Policy):

• The 48th Conference on Oceans Law & Policy (COLP48) is a global forum advancing maritime stability, security, and sustainable development. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The theme of COLP48 is “Developing World Approaches to Ocean Governance: Perspectives from the Indian Ocean Rim”.
• It is the first time the COLP is being hosted in the Indian subcontinent. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Key Themes / Issues to Be Addressed:

• Key focus areas include the triple planetary crisis – biodiversity loss, climate change, and ocean pollution.
• The conference discusses seabed minerals, offshore oil & gas, and critical infrastructure in oceans.
• It covers fisheries, food security, and the BBNJ Agreement (Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction).
• Issues of maritime trade, shipping, and security are also central to the discussions.
• The role of emerging technologies and AI in ocean governance is highlighted.
• Special attention is given to the concerns of Small Island Developing States (SIDS) and non-state actors.
• The conference explores the future of ocean governance in the Indian Ocean region from a Global South perspective.
• It provides India an opportunity to strengthen its role in blue economy, maritime security, and ocean governance diplomacy.

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2165373

8. With reference to “Net-Zero emissions”, which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. India announced its Net-Zero emissions target for 2070 at the COP26 UNFCCC Conference

II. India is the third-largest emitter of greenhouse gases after China and the USA.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Explanation:

In NEWS: Sustainable aviation fuel policy in the works as India targets Net Zero by 2070

India’s Net-Zero Target:

• India announced its Net-Zero emissions target for 2070 at the COP26 UNFCCC Conference (Glasgow, 2021). Hence statement I is correct.
• The target means that by 2070, India will balance greenhouse gas emissions with their removal (through carbon sinks, renewables, technology, etc.).

India’s 5 Commitments (Panchamrit – announced by PM Modi at COP26)

• By 2030, India will reach 500 GW of non-fossil fuel energy capacity.
• By 2030, India will meet 50% of its energy requirements from renewable sources.
• India will reduce its total projected carbon emissions by 1 billion tonnes by 2030.
• India will reduce the emissions intensity of GDP by 45% (from 2005 levels) by 2030.
• India will achieve Net Zero emissions by 2070.

Significance

• India is the third-largest emitter of greenhouse gases (after China and the USA). Hence statement II is correct.
• Despite this, India’s per capita emissions are far below the global average.
• The 2070 target balances climate responsibility with developmental needs (energy security, poverty reduction, industrial growth).

Steps Taken Towards Net-Zero

• Expansion of solar and wind power (world’s largest solar capacity addition program).
• Launch of National Hydrogen Mission (2021) to promote green hydrogen.
• Energy Efficiency schemes – PAT (Perform, Achieve, Trade), UJALA, EESL initiatives.
• Electric Mobility push – FAME II scheme, EV adoption targets.
• Carbon markets and green bonds to finance clean energy.

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/energy/sustainable-aviation-fuel-policy-in-the-works-as-india-targets-net-zero-by-2070

9. Consider the following statements:

I. Melioidosis is a severe bacterial disease caused by the bacterium found in soil and water, especially in tropical and subtropical regions.

II. Melioidosis predominantly spreads through person-to-person transmission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  

(a) I only 

(b) II only 

(c) Both I and I  

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only

Explanation:

In NEWS: An air of mystery surrounds the deaths in Turakapalem village near Andhra’s Guntur city

Melioidosis:

• Melioidosis is a severe, sometimes fatal, infectious disease caused by the bacterium Burkholderia pseudomallei. Hence statement I is correct.
• It is contracted through contact with contaminated soil and water, particularly during the rainy season, and can manifest as lung infections, skin lesions, or widespread septicemia.
• The bacterium is found in soil and water, especially in tropical and subtropical regions.
• Handling soil, working in agriculture or construction, and activities involving contact with fresh water, especially during or after flooding increases the risk of exposure to the bacterium.
• While many infections are asymptomatic, people with chronic conditions like diabetes, kidney disease, or those who are immunosuppressed are at higher risk of severe illness.

How it spreads:

• Through direct contact with contaminated soil or water.
• Inhalation of contaminated dust or water droplets.
• Ingestion of contaminated water.
• Contamination of open wounds or cuts.
• Person-to-person spread is very rare. There are only a few documented cases of person-to-person transmission. Hence statement II is incorrect.

Treatment and Outcome:

• Treatment requires long courses of antibiotics, which can last for several months.
• Aggressive and timely antibiotic therapy is critical for survival.
• Some infections, especially if left untreated, can lead to severe complications or death.

Prevention:

• Wear protective footwear when in soil or water, especially in endemic areas.
• Use protective barriers to cover open wounds and abrasions.
• Exercise caution when handling soil or water during heavy rain or after floods.

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/health/an-air-of-mystery-surrounds-the-deaths-in-turakapalem-village-near-andhras-guntur-city#google_vignette

10. Consider the following statements:

Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’

1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest

2. hunting is not allowed in such area

3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce

4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Answer: (c) Only three

EXPLANATION:

• Community Reserves are notified by the State Government, not the Central Government. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• They are managed by a Community Reserve Management Committee (with local people + Chief Wildlife Warden oversight), not solely by the Chief Wildlife Warden.
• Hunting is prohibited in Community Reserves just like in other protected areas.
• Community reserves allow sustainable use of resources like NTFP, fuelwood, etc., by locals.
• Traditional activities, including agriculture, are allowed as long as they are sustainable and not harmful to wildlife.