1. With reference to Salwa Judum, consider the following statements:
- It was a government-sponsored militia movement aimed at countering Naxalite insurgency in Chhattisgarh.
- The Supreme Court of India declared the deployment of tribal youth as Special Police Officers (SPOs) under Salwa Judum unconstitutional.
- Salwa Judum was initiated and led by the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: A look at rise and fall of Salwa Judum amid Amit Shah’s Naxalism barb at Oppn’s Vice-President candidate
SALWA JUDUM:
- Salwa Judum was an anti-Naxalite movement that began in 2005 in the Bastar region of Chhattisgarh, purportedly as a “people’s resistance movement” against Maoist insurgents. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It involved the mobilization of tribal youth, many of whom were appointed as Special Police Officers (SPOs), and operated with the support of the state government. While initially portrayed as a grassroots initiative, it was later revealed to have state sponsorship, with active assistance from local police and security forces.
- The movement quickly became controversial due to widespread allegations of human rights violations, forced displacements, and violence against civilians.
- In 2011, the Supreme Court of India declared the deployment of tribal youth as SPOs under Salwa Judum to be unconstitutional, citing violations of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The Court also ordered the disbandment of the SPOs and directed the state to stop funding such groups.
- While Salwa Judum was not initiated or led by the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), central paramilitary forces were involved in coordinated operations alongside state-backed groups. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- The Salwa Judum episode raises important questions about the balance between internal security measures and constitutional rights, especially in conflict-prone tribal regions.
PYQ REFERENCE: (2021) Q. Consider the following pairs: Movement/Organization – Leader 1. All India Anti-Untouchability League – Mahatma Gandhi 2. All India Kisan Sabha – Swami Sahajanand Saraswati 3. Self-Respect Movement – E.V. Ramaswami Naicker Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
2. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I :
Earthquakes do not occur in the interior of tectonic plates
Statement-II:
Earthquakes are only caused by plate boundary interactions
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Explanation:
In NEWS: Afghanistan Earthquake Today Live Updates: Quake toll rises to 1,124, at least 3,251 injured
- While it is true that most earthquakes occur along plate boundaries due to interactions like subduction, collision, and transform faulting, it is incorrect to say that earthquakes do not occur in the interior of tectonic plates. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Such intraplate earthquakes, though less frequent, can be destructive. The 1993 Latur earthquake in Maharashtra and the 1811–12 New Madrid earthquakes in the U.S. are key examples.
- These quakes are often caused by the reactivation of ancient faults or crustal weaknesses within stable continental regions. Hence statement 2 is correct.
PYQ REFERENCE: (2023) Q. Consider the following statements: 1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. 2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
3. The primary objective of Exercise Yudh Kaushal 3.0 was to:
(a) Test India’s nuclear response readiness
(b) Conduct amphibious landing drills with Navy and Coast Guard
(c) Validate integrated battle group (IBG) operations in high-altitude terrain
(d) Conduct urban warfare simulation in metro cities
Answer: (c) Validate integrated battle group (IBG) operations in high-altitude terrain
Explanation:
In NEWS: Indian Army tests combat readiness in Arunachal Pradesh
Exercise Yudh Kaushal 3.0:
- Exercise Yudh Kaushal 3.0 is a high-altitude military exercise conducted by the Indian Army’s Gajraj Corps in the Kameng Sector of Arunachal Pradesh.
- The 2024 iteration focused on validating Integrated Battle Group (IBG) operations, enhancing all-weather combat readiness, and showcasing multi-domain capabilities, including drone surveillance, AI-driven systems, and indigenous defence technologies under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat initiative. Hence option (c) is correct.
- The exercise aimed to simulate real-time battlefield scenarios in extreme terrain and weather, ensuring rapid mobility, coordination, and technological integration for future conflicts, especially in Eastern Command’s operational areas along the Line of Actual Control (LAC).
PYQ REFERENCE: (2024) Q. Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct? 1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh 2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune). 3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation. 4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise. Select the answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 |
4. What is the core technology used in CEREBO, the handheld device developed for rapid brain injury diagnosis?
(a) Functional MRI with neural mapping
(b) Near-Infrared Spectroscopy (NIRS) integrated with machine learning
(c) X-ray fluorescence and Doppler imaging
(d) Electromagnetic pulse imaging with contrast agents
Answer: (c) Near-Infrared Spectroscopy (NIRS) integrated with machine learning
Explanation:
In NEWS: ICMR pushes for made-in-India handheld that can detect brain bleeds in 2 mins. All about CEREBO
- CEREBO is a portable handheld device that uses Near-Infrared Spectroscopy (NIRS) combined with machine learning to rapidly and non-invasively diagnose traumatic brain injuries (TBI) like intracranial bleeding and brain edema. Hence option (b) is correct.
- NIRS emits near-infrared light into brain tissue, detecting changes in absorption caused by oxygenated and deoxygenated haemoglobin.
- Injured areas alter these patterns, which the device’s AI analyzes in real time to provide color-coded, radiation-free results within a minute—vital for emergency care.
- Unlike bulky, expensive CT scans or MRIs that require radiation or magnetic fields, CEREBO is battery-operated and safe for vulnerable groups such as infants and pregnant women. Its portability and ease of use make it ideal for rural and low-resource settings lacking advanced neuroimaging infrastructure.
- By integrating advanced optical technology with AI, CEREBO democratizes brain injury diagnosis, enhancing timely intervention and healthcare accessibility across India and beyond.
PYQ REFERENCE: (2014) Q. In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person? 1. Iris scanning 2. Retinal scanning 3. Voice recognition Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
5. With reference to the Bureau of Immigration (BoI) in India, consider the following statements:
- It functions under the Ministry of External Affairs.
- It is responsible for immigration control and border management at air, sea, and land ports.
- It issues passports and visa clearances to Indian citizens.
- It coordinates with the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) for immigration and customs enforcement.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Immigration bureau set to check fraud, deport foreigners
Bureau of Immigration (BoI) in India:
- The Bureau of Immigration (BoI) functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of External Affairs. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- The BoI is primarily responsible for immigration control and border management at all air, sea, and land entry points into India, ensuring proper monitoring and regulation of cross-border movements. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The BoI does not issue passports or visa clearances. Passport issuance is handled by the Passport Seva Division under the Ministry of External Affairs, while visa clearances are managed by various Foreigners Regional Registration Offices (FRROs). Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- The BoI works in coordination with the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) to enforce immigration and customs regulations effectively at ports and borders. Hence statement 4 is correct.
PYQ REFERENCE: (2023) Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the ‘Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’. 2. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries. 3. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None |
6. With reference to the Bairabi-Sairang rail line, consider the following statements:
- It is a railway project aimed at improving connectivity in the northeastern state of Arunachal Pradesh.
- The rail line connects Bairabi, in Assam, to Sairang, near Aizawl in Mizoram.
- The project is part of the Indian government’s initiative to enhance infrastructure under the Act East Policy.
- It is a broad gauge electrified rail line that has been fully operational since 2020.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: New Bairabi-Sairang rail line set to improve connectivity in Mizoram
Bairabi-Sairang rail line:
- The Bairabi-Sairang rail line is a key infrastructure project focused on enhancing connectivity in Mizoram Hence Statement 1 is incorrect
- It aims to link Sairang, located near the state capital Aizawl, with the existing railway network at Bairabi, thus integrating Mizoram with the wider Indian Railways system Hence Statement 2 is correct
- This project aligns with the government’s Act East Policy, which prioritizes infrastructure development and improved connectivity in the Northeast to foster economic growth and strategic ties Hence Statement 3 is correct
- Moreover, due to Mizoram’s rugged and hilly terrain, the construction involves complex engineering challenges such as the creation of multiple tunnels and bridges to traverse the difficult landscape Hence Statement 4 is incorrect
- Each of these statements accurately describes different facets of the project, confirming that all four statements are correct.
7. With reference to the Air Quality Life Index (AQLI) 2025, consider the following statements:
- It measures the impact of air pollution on life expectancy.
- It is released annually by the World Health Organization (WHO).
- According to the 2025 report, India accounts for the highest number of total life years lost globally due to PM₂.₅ pollution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: All of India breathes bad air, AQLI 2025 report says
AIR QUALITY LIFE INDEX 2025:
- It is produced by the Energy Policy Institute at the University of Chicago (EPIC). Hence Statement 2 is incorrect
- The index is grounded in rigorous, peer-reviewed economic research by EPIC’s director Michael Greenstone and his team, translating PM₂.₅ pollution levels into their life expectancy impacts. Hence Statement 1 is correct
Global Impact
- Based on data from 2023, the report indicates that meeting the WHO’s air pollution guideline would have dramatically improved global health:
- Globally, the average person would have gained 1.9 years of life expectancy.
- In aggregate, that translates to 15.1 billion life years added worldwide
- Across India, average life expectancy is reduced by 3.5 years due to PM₂.₅ pollution—if levels were brought down to WHO standards, life expectancy would increase by this much
- In Delhi, the toll is even higher: an average resident could live 8.2 years longer if PM₂.₅ concentrations were reduced to meet WHO guidelines
Regional Patterns
- South Asia remains the most polluted region globally. Delhi, in particular, leads as the city with the largest potential life expectancy gain from improved air quality
India’s Rank in Total Life Years Lost
- While the 2025 AQLI report highlights that India faces one of the largest per-person life expectancy losses due to PM₂.₅, it does not explicitly state that India accounts for the highest total life years lost globally. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect
PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: 1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m3. 2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. 3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 only |
8. With reference to Char Dham Yatra, consider the following statements:
- It refers to Yamunotri, Gangotri, Kedarnath, and Badrinath shrines in Uttarakhand.
- The pilgrimage was popularized by Ramanujacharya.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Char Dham Yatra reels from climate shocks as 55 “zero-pilgrim days” recorded
Char Dham Yatra:
- Char Dham refers to the four sacred pilgrimage sites in Uttarakhand’s Garhwal Himalayas: Yamunotri, Gangotri, Kedarnath, and Badrinath. Hence Statement 1 is correct
- The Yatra was popularized by Adi Shankaracharya in the 8th century CE. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect
- The pilgrimage is undertaken in a clockwise direction: Yamunotri → Gangotri → Kedarnath → Badrinath.
- Yamunotri is dedicated to Goddess Yamuna, origin of the Yamuna River.
- Gangotri is dedicated to Goddess Ganga, origin of the Ganga River (Bhagirathi).
- Kedarnath is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is one of the 12 Jyotirlingas.
- Badrinath is dedicated to Lord Vishnu (Badrinarayan).
- The Yatra generally remains open from April/May to October/November, and is closed in winter due to heavy snowfall.
- Managed by the Uttarakhand Char Dham Devasthanam Management Board (though governance has seen reforms and debates).
- The Char Dham Highway Project aims to improve all-weather connectivity to these shrines.
- The pilgrimage is significant for religious tourism, but raises concerns over environmental degradation, landslides, and over-tourism.
- Distinction:
- Chota Char Dham → Yamunotri, Gangotri, Kedarnath, Badrinath (Uttarakhand).
- Bada Char Dham → Badrinath, Dwarka, Jagannath Puri, Rameswaram (pan-India).
PYQ REFERENCE: (2017) Q. Consider the following pairs: Traditions – Communities 1. Chaliha Sahib Festival – Sindhis 2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra – Gonds 3. Wari-Warkari – Santhals Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) None of the above |
9. The island of Katchatheevu is located in:
(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Palk Strait
(c) Andaman Sea
(d) Laccadive Sea
Answer: (b) Palk Strait
Explanation:
In NEWS: Dissanayake visits Katchatheevu, pledges to safeguard Sri Lankan territory
Katchatheevu island:
- Katchatheevu is a small uninhabited island (≈285 acres) in the Palk Strait, located between Rameswaram (India) and Jaffna (Sri Lanka). Hence option (b) is correct.
- Historically, it was controlled by the Jaffna kingdom, later came under the British, and became disputed after Independence.
- Under the Indo–Sri Lanka Maritime Boundary Agreement (1974), India ceded Katchatheevu to Sri Lanka.
- The 1976 agreement further prohibited fishermen of both countries from fishing in each other’s waters.
- India did not pass a Constitutional Amendment while ceding the island, which remains a subject of constitutional and political debate.
- The Supreme Court has held (Berubari case, 1960) that ceding territory requires a constitutional amendment; hence, Katchatheevu’s transfer is often questioned.
- The island has no permanent population, but is of strategic importance in the Palk Strait.
- The St. Anthony’s Church located on the island is a site of an annual festival attended by fishermen from both India and Sri Lanka.
- Tamil Nadu fishermen frequently cross into Sri Lankan waters around Katchatheevu, leading to detentions/arrests by the Sri Lankan Navy.
- Katchatheevu is a recurring issue in India–Sri Lanka relations, especially raised by political parties in Tamil Nadu.

PYQ REFERENCE: (2016) Q. Recently, our scientists have discovered a new and distinct species of banana plant which attains a height of about 11 metres and has orange-coloured fruit pulp. In which part of India has it been discovered? (a) Andaman Islands (b) Anaimalai Forests (c) Maikala Hills (d) Tropical rain forests of northeast |
10. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
(a) Manas National Park
(b) Namdapha National Park
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Valley of Flowers National Park
Answer: (d) Valley of Flowers National Park
EXPLANATION:
- Manas National Park (Assam) → Tropical and subtropical forests, not alpine.
- Namdapha National Park (Arunachal Pradesh) → Ranges from tropical rainforest to alpine meadows, but not completely alpine.
- Neora Valley National Park (West Bengal) → Has subtropical to temperate forests, not fully alpine.
- Valley of Flowers National Park (Uttarakhand) → Lies entirely in the temperate alpine zone of the western Himalayas, famous for alpine meadows and endemic flora.