1. Consider the following statements about lunar eclipses:
1. A total lunar eclipse can be observed from any place on Earth where the Moon is above the horizon.
2. A lunar eclipse can last longer than a solar eclipse.
3. A lunar eclipse is more frequent than a solar eclipse.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Total lunar eclipse on night between September 7 and 8
Total Lunar Eclipse:
- A total lunar eclipse can indeed be observed from any part of Earth where the Moon is above the horizon, unlike a solar eclipse which has a narrow visibility path. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Although many students assume lunar eclipses are more frequent because more people can see them, in reality solar eclipses occur more frequently worldwide (2–5 per year) compared to 0–3 lunar eclipses. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
- Finally, a lunar eclipse can last for several hours, with totality itself reaching nearly 1 hour 40 minutes, whereas a total solar eclipse rarely exceeds 7.5 minutes, which makes Statement 2 correct.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2017) Q. The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, ‘String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of (a) Observation and understanding of the Universe (b) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses (c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth (d) Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth |
2. Consider the following statements regarding the broader impact of GST rationalisation (Sept 2025):
1. Reduction in GST on household items and food products will increase disposable income and support demand-led growth.
2. Lowering GST on automobiles and auto parts will primarily benefit high-end luxury car manufacturers.
3. Zero GST on life-saving drugs reflects the government’s focus on inclusive health care.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Govt reduces GST on commonly used items; new rates to be effective from 22nd of this month
NEXT-GEN GST REFORMS:
- The reduction in GST on household essentials and food products such as soaps, shampoos, bicycles, and processed food items will directly lower consumer expenditure, thereby increasing disposable income. This in turn will stimulate demand-led growth, making Statement 1 correct.
- The decision to lower GST on the automobile sector—covering small cars, motorcycles up to 350 cc, buses, trucks, ambulances, three-wheelers, and all auto parts—primarily benefits the mass segment and transport sector, not luxury car manufacturers. Thus, Statement 2 is incorrect as it wrongly assumes the benefit goes to high-end vehicles.
- The zero GST on 33 life-saving drugs and on certain medicines for cancer and rare diseases highlights the government’s commitment towards affordable and inclusive healthcare, making Statement 3 correct.
- Collectively, these reforms aim at easing the financial burden of households, supporting rural and urban consumers, boosting industry competitiveness, and aligning taxation with the vision of inclusive growth.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2018) Q. What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? 1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. 2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. 3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
3. With reference to the traditional textile Vrindavani Vastra, consider the following statements:
1. Vrindavani Vastra originated in Assam during the 16th century under the patronage of the saint-scholar Srimanta Sankardev.
2. It is a type of handwoven silk textile that narrates episodes from the life of Lord Krishna, particularly his childhood in Vrindavan.
3. The weaving technique of Vrindavani Vastra is closely related to the Kalamkari art form of South India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Vrindavani Vastra to return from British Museum for 2027 exhibition
Vrindavani Vastra:
- Vrindavani Vastra is one of the most significant traditional textiles of India, originating in Assam during the 16th century. It was created under the spiritual and cultural patronage of Srimanta Sankardev, a saint-scholar, reformer, and key figure of the Bhakti Movement in Assam. Thus, Statement 1 is correct.
- The textile was woven by his disciple Madhavdev and other weavers using the indigenous weaving techniques of Assam.
- The textile is made of silk and is notable for its narrative quality, as it depicts episodes from the life of Lord Krishna, particularly his playful Leelas in Vrindavan. Its panels often show Krishna dancing with gopis, playing the flute, or lifting Govardhan hill. This religious and cultural significance makes it more than just a fabric; it is considered a visual scripture of the Vaishnavite tradition. Hence, Statement 2 is also correct.
- However, the claim that its weaving technique is related to Kalamkari is inaccurate. Kalamkari is a painted or block-printed textile from Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, whereas Vrindavani Vastra is purely a woven silk art form of Assam. Therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2015) Q. Kalamkari painting refers to (a) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India (b) a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in North-East India (c) a block-painted woollen cloth in Western Himalayan region of India (d) a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India |
Source: https://www.gktoday.in/vrindavani-vastra-textile/
4. According to the Supreme Court’s remarks in 2025, what is the correct interpretation of Article 200 of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Governors have an absolute power to withhold State Bills indefinitely.
(b) Governors must act with a sense of urgency and cannot assume monarchical roles.
(c) Governors can override the wisdom of the legislature if public interest so demands.
(d) Governors may withhold assent until the Union Government directs otherwise.
Answer: b) Governors must act with a sense of urgency and cannot assume monarchical roles.
Explanation:
In NEWS: Presidential Reference Hearing: Supreme Court Judges Say Governors Cannot Sit Endlessly Over Bills
Governor’s role in assenting a bill:
- The Supreme Court in 2025 clarified that Governors must act with a sense of urgency and cannot assume monarchical roles (Option b is correct).
- It held that Governors cannot indefinitely delay Bills, as doing so would impair the Constitution’s functioning.
- By contrast, the Court rejected the argument that Governors enjoy absolute power to withhold assent (Option a – incorrect), terming it an “absurdity.”
- Similarly, it emphasized that Governors cannot override the legislature’s wisdom (Option c – incorrect), since legislation is the domain of the elected assembly.
- Finally, assent under Article 200 is not dependent on Union Government direction (Option d – incorrect); the Governor is a constitutional head within the State framework.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2025) Q. Consider the following statements regarding constitutional provisions in India: I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions situations where the Governor of a State can act in his/her discretion. II. The President of India can, on his/her own, reserve a Bill passed by a State Legislature for consideration, even without it being forwarded by the Governor of the concerned State. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II |
5. With reference to Distribution Companies (Discoms) in India, consider the following statements:
1. Discoms are primarily responsible for the last-mile supply of electricity to consumers.
2. The Ujwal Discom Assurance Yojana (UDAY) was launched to improve the financial health of Discoms.
3. Cross-subsidization in electricity pricing often results in higher tariffs for industrial users to keep agricultural and residential tariffs lower.
4. Electricity distribution is listed under the Union List of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: SC orders DISCOMs to clear their regulatory assets | Explained
DISCOMS:
- Distribution Companies (Discoms) are the final link in India’s power supply chain, ensuring electricity reaches households, industries, and agriculture. Thus, Statement 1 is correct, as their role is primarily last-mile delivery.
- However, these entities often face financial crises due to high Aggregate Technical and Commercial (AT&C) losses, poor billing efficiency, and political pressures to keep tariffs low.
- To address this, the government launched the Ujwal Discom Assurance Yojana (UDAY) in 2015, which aimed to restructure debt, reduce interest costs, and mandate efficiency improvements. This makes Statement 2 correct.
- While UDAY provided short-term relief, many Discoms again slipped into financial stress, leading to newer reforms like the Revamped Distribution Sector Scheme (RDSS, 2021).
- A critical issue for Discoms is cross-subsidization. Industrial and commercial users are charged higher tariffs so that farmers and households can get subsidized or free power. This distortion discourages industries, adds to inefficiency, and contributes to revenue gaps—hence Statement 3 is correct.
- Regarding the constitutional aspect, Statement 4 is incorrect. Electricity is a subject under the Concurrent List (Entry 38, Seventh Schedule), not the Union List. This means both the Centre and States have powers to legislate on it, though distribution largely remains with the States. Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 1, 2 and 3 only.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2016) Q. Which one of the following is a purpose of ‘UDAY’, a scheme of the Government? (a) Providing technical and financial assistance to startup entrepreneurs in the field of renewable sources of energy (b) Providing electricity to every household in the countries by 2018 (c) Replacing the coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a period of time (d) Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies |
6. With reference to the ongoing negotiations for the India–European Union Free Trade Agreement (FTA), consider the following statements:
1. The FTA aims to double trade between India and the EU and stabilise the global economy.
2. One of the key sticking points in EU–India trade talks has been tariffs on agricultural products and dairy.
3. The EU has already imposed sanctions on India for continuing trade with Russia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Jaishankar pushes for EU-India FTA with visiting German FM
EU-INDIA FTA:
- The ongoing negotiations for the India–EU Free Trade Agreement (FTA) hold immense economic and geopolitical value. External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar underlined that the FTA could double trade between India and the EU and stabilise the global economy—a point that makes Statement 1 correct.
- By acting as a “ballast” against global uncertainty, the FTA would help diversify supply chains, reduce dependence on China, and promote resilience in global trade.
- However, the path to conclusion faces challenges. A major sticking point lies in the EU’s demand for greater market access in India’s sensitive agricultural and dairy sectors. India has been cautious in this regard, given its large agrarian base and food security concerns. This confirms that Statement 2 is correct.
- At the same time, the negotiations are complicated by geopolitical tensions, particularly over Russia. The EU has imposed sanctions on Russia, especially targeting oil and gas imports, but it has not sanctioned India for continuing its energy trade with Russia. This makes Statement 3 incorrect.
- Thus, the India–EU FTA is not just a trade deal but a strategic partnership: balancing economic growth, food security, and geopolitical autonomy while reinforcing India’s role as a global economic stabiliser.
| PYQ REFERENCE: Q. Consider the following countries: 1. Australia 2. Canada 3. China 4. India 5. Japan 6. USA Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN? (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 3, 4, 5 and 6 (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 2, 3, 4 and 6 |
7. The DIGIPIN system, recently in news, aims to:
(a) Replace Aadhaar with a new biometric ID system
(b) Digitally track food grain movement under the PDS
(c) Provide unique geo-coded digital addresses for precise location identification
(d) Digitize land records in rural areas
Answer: (c) Provide unique geo-coded digital addresses for precise location identification
Explanation:
In NEWS: Department of Posts Signs MoU with ESRI India to Strengthen the DIGIPIN Initiative
DIGIPIN Initiative:
- DIGIPIN (Digital Postal Index Number) is a geo-coded digital addressing system launched by the Department of Posts, Government of India. Hence option (c) is correct.
- It aims to provide precise digital addresses using a grid-based mapping system that divides India into 4 m × 4 m squares, each with a unique DIGIPIN.
- DIGIPIN enables accurate location identification, improving postal services, emergency response, logistics, e-commerce, and governance.
- The initiative supports the goals of the National Geospatial Policy, 2022 by promoting the use of open geospatial data and digital addressing.
- The DIGIPIN system was developed in collaboration with IIT Hyderabad.
- A citizen-facing web portal, “Apna Digipin Jaane,” was launched in May 2025 to allow users to look up their DIGIPIN based on coordinates or traditional addresses.
- In July 2025, a new feature was introduced allowing users to combine DIGIPIN with conventional address elements to create a composite Digital Address.
- On September 1, 2025, the Department of Posts signed an MoU with Esri India Technologies Pvt. Ltd. to enhance the DIGIPIN system.
- Under the MoU, Esri India will provide:
- High-resolution satellite imagery and street-level basemaps,
- Integration of DIGIPIN into Esri’s Living Atlas, and
- Technical support for improved GIS capabilities.
- This integration is expected to boost DIGIPIN’s adoption among the GIS community, urban planners, logistics operators, and public service departments.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2162858
8. With reference to Exercise MAITREE-XIV held in 2025, consider the following statements:
1. It is a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
2. It focuses on joint counter-terrorism military drill operations in semi-urban terrain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:(b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: The 14th edition of the India–Thailand joint military exercise, MAITREE-XIV, commenced on Monday (September 1, 2025) with a ceremonial opening at the Joint Training Node, Umroi in Meghalaya. The exercise will run from September 1 to 14.
MAITREE-XIV:
- MAITREE-XIV is the 14th edition of the India–Thailand joint military exercise, first initiated in 2006. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- The 2025 edition is being held at the Joint Training Node (JTN), Umroi, Meghalaya, from September 1 to 14, 2025.
- The exercise involves 120 personnel from the Indian Army’s Madras Regiment and 53 personnel from the Royal Thai Army’s 1st Infantry Battalion, 14th Infantry Brigade.
- The theme of the exercise is counter-terrorism operations in semi-urban terrain, conducted under the mandate of Chapter VII of the UN Charter (related to peace enforcement operations). Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Training modules include:
- Tactical drills and combat simulations
- Joint planning and execution
- Physical fitness and obstacle training
- Use of special arms and equipment
- 48-hour validation exercise simulating real-time joint operations
- The exercise aims to:
- Enhance interoperability between the two armies
- Improve joint operational readiness
- Strengthen bilateral defence cooperation
- Promote regional peace and security
- The 13th edition of Exercise Maitree was held in Tak Province, Thailand, showcasing the rotational nature of the exercise between the two nations.
- The geographical setting of Meghalaya, with its semi-urban and hilly terrain, provides a realistic environment for counter-terrorism and peacekeeping simulations.
- MAITREE is one of the most significant components of India’s bilateral military diplomacy with Southeast Asian nations, aligned with India’s Act East Policy.
9. Operation SWARNA, recently in the news, aims to rescue, revive, and rejuvenate which among the following rivers?
(a) Swarnamukhi River
(b) Krishna River
(c) Tungabhadra
(d) Penna River
Answer: (a) Swarnamukhi River
Explanation:
In NEWS: TUDA moots Operation Swarna to rescue, revive, rejuvenate River Swarnamukhi
Operation Swarna:
- Operation SWARNA is a river rejuvenation initiative launched by the Tirupati Urban Development Authority (TUDA) in Andhra Pradesh.
- It aims to rescue, revive, and rejuvenate the Swarnamukhi River, which flows through the temple town of Tirupati and nearby regions. Hence option (a) is correct.
- The acronym SWARNA stands for Swarnamukhi Waterbody Action for River and Nala Awareness.
- The river originates in the Eastern Ghats near Pakala and flows eastwards into the Bay of Bengal, covering a length of approximately 130 km.
- Key features of Operation SWARNA include:
- Drone surveys to scientifically map the river’s natural course
- Creation of a 50-meter buffer zone on both sides of the river
- Eviction of encroachments along the riverbanks
- Formation of a dedicated task force with legal powers to act against violators
- The task force under TUDA will have enforcement powers similar to HYDRAA (Hyderabad Revenue and Demolition Authority).
- The operation focuses on both ecological conservation and civic responsibility, aiming to restore the river’s original width, prevent flooding, and promote sustainable development.
- Operation SWARNA is aligned with broader environmental goals, including urban river rejuvenation, flood mitigation, and community-led water conservation.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2024) Q. Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called: (a) Operation Sankalp (b) Operation Maitri (c) Operation Sadbhavana (d) Operation Madad |
10. Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?
(a) Bhitarkanika National Park
(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
(c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park
(d) Sultanpur National Park
Answer: (b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
EXPLANATION:
- Keibul Lamjao National Park is located in Manipur, and it is the only floating national park in the world.
- It is situated on the Loktak Lake, which is famous for its phumdis—floating mats of soil, vegetation, and organic matter.
This unique ecosystem supports a rich biodiversity, including the endangered Sangai deer (also called the brow-antlered deer or dancing deer), which is endemic to this region.