1. With reference to the Governor’s role in state universities, which among the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Governor’s role as Chancellor of State universities is derived from the Constitution, not from State university statutes.
2. The constitution of India under article 163 empowers the Governor for the appointment of Vice-Chancellors (VCs) in State universities.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: SC to hear T.N.’s plea on State’s power to appoint V-Cs
The appointment of Vice-Chancellors (VCs) in State universities:
Constitutional Position of the Governor
- The Constitution does not expressly assign the Governor any role in university administration; this authority arises from State university statutes.
- The Governor’s role as Chancellor is statutory, not constitutional, and distinct from Articles 153–161 functions.
- Article 163 deals with the Council of Ministers’ advice and the limited discretionary powers of the Governor.
- It does not mention universities or the appointment of Vice-Chancellors.
- VC appointment powers come from State University Acts, not Article 163. Hence both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
- Article 163 discretion does not automatically extend to university matters, creating interpretive ambiguity.
- The dual identity of the Governor – as constitutional head and statutory Chancellor – creates continuing institutional friction with the State government.
- The Governor’s actions in university affairs often raise concerns regarding accountability, neutrality, and adherence to ministerial advice.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2014) Q. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? 1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule 2. Appointing the Ministers 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India 4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
2. Consider the following statements.
1. The Graded Response Action Plan works only as an emergency measure.
2. The plan is enforced by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM).
3. Stage IV of GRAP is taken when the air pollution rises to the ‘Severe +’ category, which is more than 450.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All three
Explanation:
In NEWS: ‘Perennial’ GRAP is not the solution for Delhi’s air pollution: Supreme Court
Graded Response Action Plan:
- GRAP is a set of emergency measures that kick in to prevent further deterioration of air quality once it reaches a certain threshold in the Delhi-NCR region.
- It was notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in 2017 following the directions of the Supreme Court in response to rising pollution in Delhi.
- It is enforced by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM). Hence statement 2 is correct.
- GRAP works only as an emergency measure. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- GRAP is incremental in nature and thus, when the air quality dips from ‘poor’ to ‘very poor,’ measures listed under both sections must be followed.
Stage I – “Poor” AQI (201–300)
Actions include:
- Strict enforcement of dust control at construction sites
- Increased mechanized road sweeping
- Water sprinkling to reduce dust
- Ban on garbage burning
- Promotion of public transport
Stage II – “Very Poor” AQI (301–400)
Actions include:
- Ban on use of diesel generators (non-essential)
- Enhanced parking fees to discourage private vehicle use
- Boost public transport frequency
- Ban on coal and firewood in eateries
Stage III – “Severe” AQI (401–450)
Actions include:
- Ban on construction and demolition activities (except essential)
- Restrictions on stone crushers, mining, hot-mix plants
- Shutdown of polluting industrial units
- Ban on trucks (non-essential) entering the city
Stage IV – “Severe+ / Emergency” AQI (450+) Hence statement 3 is correct
Actions include:
- Ban on all construction activities (including essential, except defense/health)
- Ban on entry of all trucks except essential ones
- Closure of schools and colleges (as decided by authorities)
- Work-from-home advisories
- Closure of industries except those crucial for essential services
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: 1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m3. 2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. 3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 only |
3. Gender Guidance Clinics (GGCs), recently in the news, are primarily aimed at:
(a) Providing mental health counselling for adolescents
(b) Offering multidisciplinary, gender-affirming healthcare under one roof
(c) Conducting STI surveillance and treatment exclusively
(d) Implementing income-linked health insurance portability
Answer: (b) Offering multidisciplinary, gender-affirming healthcare under one roof
Explanation:
In NEWS: Can Tamil Nadu’s reforms change transgender healthcare?
Gender Guidance Clinics (GGCs):
- Established by the National Health Mission (Tamil Nadu) in 2018.
- Created to provide multidisciplinary, gender-affirming healthcare for transgender persons under one roof. Hence option (b) is correct.
- Tamil Nadu is the first State to institutionalise such clinics at the district level. By 2025, GGCs are functional in eight districts of Tamil Nadu.
- Offer free gender-affirming surgeries, hormone therapy, counselling, psychiatry, endocrinology, and follow-up care.
- Between April 2019 – March 2024, 7,644 transgender individuals accessed GGC services.
- Services of GGCs are integrated into the Chief Minister’s Comprehensive Health Insurance Scheme (CMCHIS-PMJAY) since 2022.
- Tamil Nadu is the first South Asian government to include gender-affirming care in a public insurance package.
- Income ceiling of ₹72,000 for CMCHIS-PMJAY removed for transgender persons.
- Ration card requirement waived for enrolment to avoid exclusion due to stigma or family rejection.
- GGC model aligns with “leave no one behind” principle of SDGs and Universal Health Coverage.
- Doctors at GGCs trained on World Professional Association for Transgender Health (WPATH) Standards of Care, Version 8.
- Supported by broader legal reforms: Madras High Court judgments, TN Mental Health Policy (2019), State Policy for Transgender Persons (2025).
- Key challenges include: expanding primary-to-tertiary care, building provider capacity, regulating empanelled hospitals, including mental health benefits, and tackling societal stigma.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2023) Q. Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : 1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. 2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. 3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. 4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four |
4. Which one of the following best describes the term “Daughter Fund” sometimes seen in news?
(a) A government-owned fund that directly provides grants and subsidies to startups.
(b) A professionally managed Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) that receives capital from a larger Fund of Funds and invests it in startups and technology enterprises.
(c) A fund created by State governments to finance higher education institutions.
(d) A special purpose vehicle (SPV) under the Companies Act used for disinvestment of public sector units.
Answer: (b) A professionally managed Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) that receives capital from a larger Fund of Funds and invests it in startups and technology enterprises.
Explanation:
In NEWS: Electronics Development Fund – With ₹257.77 crore invested, the Fund has supported 128 startups nationwide
Daughter Funds:
- Daughter Funds are professionally managed venture or angel funds that receive capital from a larger “Parent Fund” (Fund of Funds) and invest in early-stage startups or high-technology ventures. Hence option (b) is correct.
- They act as intermediary financial vehicles that channel both public and private investment into innovation-driven enterprises.
- This model helps de-risk public capital while leveraging private sector expertise and co-investment.
- The Parent Fund (e.g., Electronics Development Fund – EDF) acts as a Fund of Funds.
- It contributes to selected Daughter Funds, which are registered under SEBI AIF Category I or II.
- Daughter Funds then invest in startups, MSMEs, and technology ventures aligned with national priorities.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2018) Q. Which one of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in news? (a) The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank. (b) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchaing goods or services. (c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards. (d) The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards. |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2190256
5. Consider the following statements with respect to the Global Methane Status Report (GMSR) 2025:
I. It is a new flagship analysis by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) and the Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC).
II. The biggest sources of methane is agriculture, especially from livestock, manure, rice cultivation and waste.
III. The energy sector holds nearly three fourths of the cost-effective methane reduction potential.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and Il only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
Explanation:
In NEWS: Global Methane Status Report warns of rising emissions but charts path to 2030 progress
The Global Methane Status Report (GMSR) 2025:
- The Global Methane Status Report (GMSR) 2025, by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) and the Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC), shows that methane emissions are still increasing. Hence statement I is correct.
- The biggest sources of methane are agriculture (about 42%) — from livestock, manure, rice cultivation — and waste. Hence statement II is correct.
- As of June 2025, 65% of countries under the Paris Agreement have included methane-specific measures in their NDCs (Nationally Determined Contributions).
- If all the national Methane Action Plans (MAPs) are fully implemented, global methane emissions could peak this decade and decline by 8% below 2020 levels by 2030.
- But even 8% is not enough to meet the Global Methane Pledge (GMP) goal of a 30% cut by 2030.
Where reductions can happen fastest
Energy Sector
- Holds the majority of cost-effective methane reduction potential. More than 72% of the total methane reduction potential (by 2030) lies here. Hence statement III is correct.
- Key actions: fixing leaks, reducing venting/flaring, modernizing pipelines, and capturing gas from coal/oil/gas operations.
Waste Sector
- Emissions are expected to grow without new interventions.
- Solutions: landfill gas capture, composting, anaerobic digestion, and waste segregation.
Agriculture
- Hardest sector to reform due to social and economic dependence on livestock and rice.
- Options include improved feed, better breeding, manure management, and rice field water management.
- Adoption remains slow worldwide.
Major gaps in data and finance
- Methane monitoring and reporting remain inconsistent, especially in fossil fuel sectors.
- Clear uncertainties persist in national inventories.
- Methane mitigation needs sustained financing, estimated at over $100 billion annually by 2030.
- Funds must come from public sources, private investment, and climate finance institutions.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2017) Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries. 2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
6.”Neurotechnology” has applications in which of the following?
1. Treating Parkinson’s disease via deep brain stimulation
2. Brain-controlled prosthetic limbs
3. Sleep improvement tools
4. Monitoring productivity at workplace
5. Brain-controlled drones
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation:
In NEWS: What are UNESCO’s new guidelines for the use of neurotechnology?
Neurotechnology:
- Neurotechnology refers to tools, devices, and methods that interact directly with the brain or nervous system to monitor, assess, repair, or enhance neural activity.
- It includes technologies that:
- Read brain signals (neural recording)
- Write or modify brain activity (neural stimulation)
- Interface the brain with computers or machines (BCIs/BNIs)
- Map or analyze the structure and function of the nervous system
- Its Scope includes monitoring, stimulation, BCIs, neuroprosthetics, neuroinformatics, consumer devices, defence uses.
Applications of Neurotechnology
Medical Applications
- Treatment of Neurological Disorders – Parkinson’s disease (via Deep Brain Stimulation), Epilepsy, Essential tremor and Stroke rehabilitation
- Psychiatric Interventions – Depression, OCD, PTSD and Addiction treatment (experimental)
- Restoring Lost Abilities – Speech restoration for people with paralysis, brain-controlled prosthetic limbs and vision restoration (retinal implants)
- Diagnosis & Monitoring – Detecting Alzheimer’s, dementia, brain tumors, Monitoring sleep disorders and detecting early signs of mental health issues
Non-Medical Applications
- Education & Cognitive Enhancement – Improving attention & memory, Neurofeedback for learning and brain-state monitoring in classrooms (controversial)
- Consumer Wellness – Stress or focus monitoring headsets, Meditation neurodevices and sleep improvement tools
- Brain–Machine Interaction – Gaming controlled by brain signals and VR/AR integration for immersive experiences
- Workplace Applications (Ethically Sensitive) – Monitoring fatigue, attention, productivity
Research & Scientific Applications
- Understanding brain circuits
- Brain mapping projects
- AI models inspired by neural activity
- Drug testing using neural simulations
Security & Defense (High-risk segment)
- Enhancing soldier cognition
- Detecting deception or hostile intent (experimental)
- Brain-controlled drones or exoskeletons
- UNESCO recommends strict regulation here.
Hence all are correct.
UNESCO’s new guidelines for neurotechnology:
- UNESCO stresses strong protection of mental privacy, treating neural data as highly sensitive and requiring explicit, informed consent for its use.
- The guidelines uphold freedom of thought and cognitive autonomy, prohibiting coercive or manipulative uses of neurotechnology.
- Non-therapeutic or enhancement uses, especially in workplaces and for children or other vulnerable groups, should be strictly limited.
- Neurotechnology that can influence behaviour or emotions must be clearly regulated, with full transparency about how brain data is collected and used.
- Countries should ensure equitable access to therapeutic neurotechnologies so they do not deepen social inequalities.
- Developers and companies must follow safety, accountability, and privacy-by-design principles, with mechanisms for grievance and redress.
- Governments are encouraged to integrate these guidelines into national laws and create oversight systems for research, commercial products, and consumer neurotech.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2018) Q. “3D printing” has applications in which of the following? 1. Preparation of confectionery items 2. Manufacture of bionic ears 3. Automotive industry 4. Reconstructive surgeries 5. Data processing technologies Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 5 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 |
7. Exercise Garuda-25, recently in the news, is a bilateral exercise between India and which of the following countries?
(a) United States
(b) Russia
(c) France
(d) United Kingdom
Answer: (c) France
Explanation:
In NEWS: EXERCISE GARUDA 25: INDIAN AIR FORCE PARTICIPATES IN 8TH EDITION OF BILATERAL AIR EXERCISE WITH FRENCH AIR AND SPACE FORCE
Exercise GARUDA-25:
- Exercise Garuda-25 is the 8th edition of the bilateral air exercise held between the Indian Air Force and the French Air & Space Force. Hence option (c) is correct.
- The exercise is being conducted from 16–27 November 2025 at Mont-de-Marsan Air Base in France.
- The Indian Air Force has deployed Su-30MKI fighter aircraft, IL-78 mid-air refuellers, and a C-17 Globemaster III for strategic airlift.
- The exercise focuses on air-to-air combat training, air defence missions, coordinated strike operations, and interoperability drills.
- It aims to strengthen operational synergy between the two air forces through joint planning and execution of complex aerial missions.
- The deployment demonstrates the IAF’s long-range operational capability and ability to sustain overseas exercises.
- The exercise contributes to India–France strategic defence cooperation, a key pillar of their long-standing Strategic Partnership.
- It enhances professional exchange, tactical learning, and exposure to NATO-standard operational procedures.
- The exercise serves as a platform for improving aircrew proficiency, mission adaptability, and multilateral readiness.
- Garuda-25 underscores the role of defence diplomacy in maintaining strong bilateral military relations and improving joint operational readiness.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2190299®=3&lang=1
8. Consider the following pairs:
| S.no | Tribal Freedom Fighters | Associated Movement |
| 1 | Veer Narayan Singh | Sonakhan Uprising (1856–57) |
| 2 | Birsa Munda | Ulgulan Movement (1899–1900) |
| 3 | Badal Bhoi | Chhindwara Protest (1923) |
| 4 | Raja Shankar Shah and Raghunath Shah | Revolt of 1857 |
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
In NEWS: Honouring India’s Tribal Freedom Fighters
- November 15 is celebrated as Janjatiya Gaurav Divas (Tribal Pride Day) to commemorate the birth anniversary of tribal freedom fighter Birsa Munda.
- The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is establishing 11 museums to commemorate various tribal movements and uprisings against British rule and promote their cultures and histories.
- The Ministry of Tribal Affairs promotes tribal art, language, and traditions through other digital initiatives such as Adi Sanskriti and Adi Vaani.
The unsung heroes of India’s tribal heritage
1. Veer Narayan Singh – Sonakhan Uprising (1856–57)
- Revolt triggered by British grain hoarding during the 1856 famine.
- Veer Narayan Singh broke British granaries to feed starving villagers.
- Formed a local militia after escaping prison and fought British forces.
- Considered an early precursor to the 1857 revolt in Chhattisgarh.
Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
2. Birsa Munda – Ulgulan Movement (“Great Tumult”, 1899–1900)
- Revolt against British land revenue policies, exploitation by zamindars and missionaries.
- Sought restoration of Khuntkatti (traditional Munda community land rights).
- Demanded Munda Raj—a self-governed tribal polity.
- Led to significant reforms, influencing laws like the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act (1908).
Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
3. Badal Bhoi – Chhindwara Tribal Protest (1923)
- Mass mobilisation of Adivasis against British administrative excesses; met with lathi charge.
Forest Law Resistance (1930)
- Protested against colonial forest policies restricting tribal access to forests.
- Arrested for breaking unjust forest regulations.
- Represents broader tribal participation in the Forest Satyagraha during the freedom struggle.
Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
4. Raja Shankar Shah – Revolt of 1857 (Central India Tribal Participation)
- Mobilised Gond communities during the 1857 uprising.
- Inspired resistance through patriotic poems and songs.
- Arrested and executed for allegedly plotting rebellion.
5. Kunwar Raghunath Shah – Revolt of 1857 (Cultural Resistance)
- Supported his father Raja Shankar Shah in the Central India tribal uprising.
- Used poetic compositions to rally people against British rule.
- Executed in 1858 for involvement in the uprising.
Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2020) Q. With reference to the history of India, “Ulgulan” or the Great Tumult is the description of which of the following events? (a) The Revolt of 1857 (b) The Mappila Rebellion of 1921 (c) The Indigo Revolt of 1859-60 (d) Birsa Munda’s Revolt of 1899-1900 |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2189915
9. Operation Southern Spear, recently in the news, is primarily associated with:
(a) Counter-narcotics and maritime interdiction operations led by the United States
(b) Humanitarian evacuation during natural disasters in the Caribbean
(c) Joint naval exercises between the US and Caribbean nations
(d) Anti-piracy operations in the Gulf of Mexico
Answer: (a) Counter-narcotics and maritime interdiction operations led by the United States
Explanation:
In NEWS: U.S. to launch new military operation in Latin America
Operation Southern Spear:
- Operation Southern Spear is a U.S.-led maritime security and counter-narcotics operation launched in the Western Hemisphere. Hence option (a) is correct.
- It is conducted under the U.S. Southern Command (SOUTHCOM) and supported by the U.S. Navy’s 4th Fleet.
- The operation targets drug-trafficking networks, illegal maritime smuggling routes, and transnational criminal organisations operating in the Caribbean and Eastern Pacific.
- It involves the deployment of manned naval vessels, unmanned surface vessels (USVs), autonomous drones, and advanced surveillance platforms.
10. With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
The Government of India Act, 1935 proposed an All India Federation consisting of:
- British Indian provinces (mandatory), and
- Princely States (voluntary accession).
Under the 1935 Act, Defence and Foreign Affairs were “Reserved Subjects”, and remained under the exclusive control of the Governor-General, not the federal legislature.