1. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the PM-SHRI scheme?
(a) Teacher training and professional development
(b) Community engagement for better school governance
(c) Providing free higher education to all students
(d) Technology-enabled classrooms
Answer: (c) Providing free higher education to all students
Explanation:
In NEWS: The CPI had stated that the PM-SHRI funds for States depended on adherence to the National Education Policy (NEP).
PM-SHRI (Pradhan Mantri Schools for Rising India):
- PM-SHRI is a centrally sponsored scheme launched by the Ministry of Education to transform over 14,500 existing schools into model schools across India.
- It involves joint funding by the Centre and States/UTs.
Objectives of PM-SHRI:
- Holistic Education aligned with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
- Modern Infrastructure – smart classrooms, green buildings, and improved facilities.
- Inclusive Learning – catering to all students, with focus on equity.
- Digital Learning and tech integration.
- Vocational Education starting from Class 6.
Key Features:
- Green schools: Environmentally sustainable infrastructure.
- Technology-enabled classrooms.
- Assessment reforms focusing on competency-based learning.
- Teacher training and professional development.
- Community engagement for better school governance.
Hence option (c) is correct.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2018) Q. Consider the following statements: 1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education. 2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines. 3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only |
2. The Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP), often seen in the news is related to:
(a) Regulate water usage during drought conditions
(b) Control and mitigation of air pollution
(c) Manage traffic congestion during festivals
(d) Provide financial aid during natural disasters
Answer: (b) Control and mitigation of air pollution
Explanation:
In NEWS: GRAP Stage 2 curbs kick in as Delhi’s air turns ‘very poor’
What is GRAP?
- GRAP (Graded Response Action Plan) is a strategic framework implemented in Delhi-NCR to tackle air pollution based on the severity of air quality levels.
- It was notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in 2017 following the directions of the Supreme Court in response to rising pollution in Delhi.
- It is enforced by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM).
Key Measures Under GRAP Stage II:
- Construction Restrictions: Prohibition of construction and demolition activities to minimize dust emissions.
- Vehicle Emission Control: Enhanced enforcement to curb vehicular emissions, including checks on diesel generator sets.
- Dust Management: Mandatory daily mechanical sweeping and water sprinkling on roads to control dust pollution.
- Fuel Restrictions: Ban on the use of coal and firewood in industrial and commercial establishments.
GRAP Stage II has been implemented in Delhi as AQI crossed 300.
Measures include:
- Ban on construction activities (except essential projects)
- Enhanced enforcement against dust pollution
- Daily sweeping and water sprinkling
- Restriction on diesel generator use
- Hence option (b) is correct.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: 1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m3. 2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. 3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 only |
3. Consider the following statements with respect to the Global Shipping Carbon Tax:
I. The Global Shipping Carbon Tax falls under the Paris Agreement directly.
II. The International Maritime Organization (IMO) is the main global body setting Green House Gas regulation for it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (b) II only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Governments at the International Maritime Organization (IMO) agreed to delay the planned adoption of the Net-Zero Framework (NZF) for one year
IMO’s Global Shipping Carbon Tax:
- The International Maritime Organization (IMO) is introducing a global carbon pricing mechanism for international shipping.
- It aims to cut greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions and reach net-zero by around 2050.
- The mechanism is expected to cover large ocean‑going ships (e.g., over 5,000 gross tonnage) engaged in international trade.
- Ships pay fees based on fuel GHG intensity (“well-to-wake” lifecycle emissions).
- Cleaner fuels = lower or no fees; dirtier fuels = higher fees.
- Includes “feebate” credits for efficient ships, credits can be traded or banked.
- The international shipping sector does not fall under the Paris Agreement directly (for the most part) so IMO is the main global body setting GHG regulation for it. Hence statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
India and the Global Shipping Carbon Tax:
- India is among the 63 countries that reportedly supported the first‑ever global carbon tax on shipping indicating India is on board.
- For Indian shipping companies / exporters/importers: shipping costs may increase (if their vessels emit above thresholds). This could translate into higher freight or cost of goods.
- Ports in India will likely be required to support low/zero‑carbon fuels, bunkering infrastructure (e.g., ammonia, methanol, hydrogen, biofuels) — this is an opportunity and challenge.
The International Maritime Organization (IMO):
- The International Maritime Organization (IMO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
- IMO is responsible for setting global standards for the safety, security, and environmental performance of international shipping.
- India is a founding member of the International Maritime Organization.
- The headquarters of the IMO is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
- The MARPOL convention, under IMO, deals with pollution from ships.
- IMO enforces the SOLAS convention, which focuses on the safety of life at sea.
- IMO has the power to impose fines and sanctions on member countries.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2024) Q. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : The European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act recently. Statement-II : The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct |
Source: https://www.offshore-energy.biz/imo-delays-adoption-of-shipping-carbon-tax-in-might-is-right-show/
4. Consider the following statements:
1. Tuvalu is a land locked country.
2. Tuvalu has no mountains or rivers.
3. Tuvalu has a Parliamentary democracy under a constitutional monarchy.
4. The predominant vegetation type on the islands of Tuvalu is the cultivated coconut woodland.
5. Tuvalu recently joined International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) as a State Member
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation:
In NEWS: Tuvalu joins IUCN as newest Pacific Island State Member
Tuvalu:
- Location: Central Pacific Ocean, midway between Hawaii and Australia
- Form of Government: Parliamentary democracy under a constitutional monarchy (King Charles III is ceremonial head). Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Type: Island nation of 9 coral atolls and reef islands. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- The predominant vegetation type on the islands of Tuvalu is the cultivated coconut woodland, which covers 43% of the land. Hence statement 4 is correct.
- Tuvalu has no mountains or rivers, and this is a notable geographical feature that makes it unique. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Sea Level Rise: Tuvalu is extremely vulnerable to climate change and rising sea levels
- There have been discussions around “digital nationhood” and even relocation of the population in the future
Tuvalu’s membership in organizations:
- Tuvalu is a United Nations Member
- It is also a Commonwealth Member
- Tuvalu signed the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) in 1992, and ratified it in December 2002.
- It recently joined the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) as a State Member (Oct 2025). Hence statement 5 is correct.
- Climate advocacy: Prominent voice for Small Island Developing States (SIDS)
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years. 2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system. 3. Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports. 4. For a long time Vietnam’s low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers. 5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 2 and 4 (b) 3 and 5 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 |
Source: https://iucn.org/news/202510/tuvalu-joins-iucn-newest-pacific-island-state-member
5. Consider the following:
1. Contaminated Soil
2. Informal Battery Recycling
3. Cosmetics
4. E-Waste Recycling
5. Toys
How many of the above are the known sources of lead poisoning?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
Answer: (d) All five
Explanation:
In NEWS: Lead exposure in children costs world $3.4 trillion a year, study warns
Lead exposure in Children:
- A new study (published in Communications Earth & Environment) estimates that childhood exposure to lead globally results in ≈ US $3.4 trillion in annual losses.
- That amount corresponds to just over 2 % of global GDP (in 2019).
- The burden is especially heavy in low‑ and middle‑income countries (LMICs), where informal recycling, weak regulation, and continuing sources of lead exposure persist.
Even though leaded petrol has been phased out globally in many places, lead contamination remains widespread via:
- Lead-Based Paints
- Contaminated Soil and Dust
- Lead in Water Pipes and Plumbing
- Informal Battery Recycling (especially lead-acid batteries)
- Industrial Emissions
- Lead-Contaminated Food and Spices
- Traditional Medicines and Cosmetics
- E-Waste Recycling
- Lead-Soldered Cans and Utensils
- Occupational Exposure (workers bringing lead home)
- Aviation Fuel (in piston-engine aircraft)
- Household Items (e.g., toys, ceramics, jewelry)
- Mining and Smelting Activities. Hence option (d) is correct.
The health effects on children are severe:
- Lead crosses the placenta and the blood‑brain barrier, meaning developing foetuses and young children are particularly vulnerable.
- At low levels, it can reduce IQ, impair brain development, cause behavioural issues.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2020) Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury. 2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment. 3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
6. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The FSSAI has withdrawn previous permissions that allowed brands to use ‘ORS’ label with disclaimers.
Statement-II: No product can use the term ‘ORS’ in its branding unless it meets WHO standards for oral rehydration solutions.
Statement III: Many products on the market mimicked ORS but had excessive sugar and inadequate electrolytes.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Explanation:
In NEWS: Hyderabad paediatrician’s eight-year battle leads to FSSAI prohibiting usage of ORS on food products
FSSAI’s New Order:
- No product can use the term ‘ORS’ in its branding unless it meets WHO standards for oral rehydration solutions.
- The FSSAI has withdrawn previous permissions (from 2022 and 2024) that allowed brands to use ‘ORS’ with disclaimers.
- This move is to stop misleading labels on fruit-based, ready-to-drink, or non-carbonated beverages pretending to be medical-grade ORS.
- Many products on the market mimicked ORS but had:
- Excessive sugar (up to 120 grams per litre)
- Inadequate electrolytes (not matching WHO norms)
- WHO-approved ORS has only 13.5 g sugar per litre, with carefully balanced electrolytes to treat dehydration safely.
Hence both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
WHO-Recommended ORS Composition (per 1 litre of water):
- Sodium chloride: 2.6 g
- Potassium chloride: 1.5 g
- Sodium citrate: 2.9 g
- Glucose (dextrose anhydrous): 13.5 g
- Total osmolarity: 245 mOsm/L
This formula is scientifically balanced to treat dehydration caused by diarrhoea and is based on decades of clinical research.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2016) Q. With reference to pre-packed items in India, it is mandatory to the manufacturer to put which of the following information on the main label, as per the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labelling) Regulation, 2011? 1. List of ingredients including additives 2. Nutrition information 3. Recommendations, if any, made by the medical profession about the possibility of any allergic reaction 4. Vegetarian/non-vegetarian Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only |
7. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDCs) a digital form of a country’s fiat currency issued and regulated by its central bank.
Statement-II: Unlike cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin, CBDCs are legal tender and centralized, with value guaranteed by the government.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Explanation:
In NEWS: RBI Governor Malhotra urges other central banks to promote CBDCs over stablecoins
Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC):
- CBDC stands for Central Bank Digital Currency, a digital form of a country’s fiat currency issued and regulated by its central bank. Hence statement I is correct.
- Unlike cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin, CBDCs are legal tender and centralized, with value guaranteed by the government. Hence statement II is correct and explains statement I
- CBDCs are designed to complement cash, not replace it, and are fully backed by the central bank.
- There are two types of CBDCs:
- Retail CBDC: For general public and businesses (digital rupee for individuals).
- Wholesale CBDC: For financial institutions, primarily for interbank settlements.
- India’s CBDC is called the Digital Rupee (e₹), being issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
- The Digital Rupee can be used for retail payments, e-commerce, and remittances.
- CBDCs are designed to provide secure, fast, and low-cost digital transactions, reducing dependence on cash.
- CBDCs enhance financial inclusion by bringing digital payments to people without access to traditional banking.
- They help curb black money, reduce transaction costs, and increase transparency.
- CBDCs do not rely on private cryptocurrencies or decentralized blockchains; they may use centralized or hybrid distributed ledger technology (DLT).
- Advantages of CBDCs include efficiency in payments, monetary policy transmission, financial inclusion, and reduced cash handling costs.
- Risks of CBDCs include cybersecurity threats, privacy concerns, and potential disruption to commercial banks’ deposit base.
- Several countries, including China, Bahamas, Sweden, and Nigeria, have already launched or piloted CBDCs.
- India launched pilot projects for the Digital Rupee in 2022 for both wholesale and retail use cases.
- RBI continues to explore the expansion and integration of CBDCs into mainstream financial and retail payments.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2023) Q. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: 1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system. 2. A digital currency can be distributed with condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
8. The PUNCH mission, recently in the news, is associated with which among the following?
(a) Deep-sea exploration
(b) Solar and heliospheric studies
(c) Planetary geology
(d) Satellite communication technology
Answer: (b) Solar and heliospheric studies
Explanation:
In NEWS: Making the invisible visible with PUNCH
PUNCH Space Mission:
- PUNCH stands for Polarimeter to Unify the Corona and Heliosphere.
- It is a NASA mission to study how the Sun’s corona transitions into the solar wind.
- The mission will help understand the Sun–Earth connection and space weather.
- It consists of four microsatellites working together to image the solar corona and heliosphere.
- The satellites will use polarimetric imaging to create 3D views of the Sun’s outer atmosphere.
- Launch: Will take place on an ISRO PSLV rocket from Sriharikota (India).
- The mission is managed by NASA’s Goddard Space Flight Center and led by the Southwest Research Institute (SwRI).
- It marks a NASA–ISRO collaboration in solar and heliophysics research.
- The mission will improve prediction of solar storms and space weather impacts on Earth.
Hence option (b) is correct.
| PYQ REFERENCE: Q. What is the purpose of the ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)’ project? (a) To detect neutrinos (b) To detect gravitational waves (c) To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system (d) To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems |
9. With reference to India’s Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA), consider the following statements:
1. It is a twin-engine stealth multirole fighter being developed by ISRO.
2. India is the fourth nation to develop fifth-generation fighter technology after the U.S., China, and Russia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Russia backs AMCA programme, offers to make Su-57 jets in India
India’s Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA):
- The Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) is India’s indigenous fifth-generation multirole stealth fighter jet project.
- It is being developed by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) under the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- The production partner for AMCA is Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) along with private industries.
- The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) approved the prototype development of the AMCA in 2025.
- The AMCA will be a twin-engine, single-seat, all-weather, multirole fighter aircraft.
Key Features and Technologies
- It will feature stealth design, internal weapons bays, and radar-absorbing materials to reduce radar cross-section (RCS).
- The aircraft will have supercruise capability, 3D thrust vectoring, and supermaneuverability.
- It will be equipped with Active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA) radar, advanced avionics, and electronic warfare systems.
- The AMCA’s first flight is expected around 2028–29, and induction is targeted in the early 2030s.
- It will complement the LCA Tejas, TEDBF (Twin Engine Deck Based Fighter), and Su-30MKI in India’s air fleet.
- The AMCA will replace ageing aircraft like MiG-29, Mirage 2000, and Jaguar.
- The aircraft will enhance India’s air superiority, deep strike, and stealth warfare capabilities.
- The AMCA project is a key step toward Atmanirbhar Bharat and defence indigenisation.
- The AMCA will have two stages of production – Mk1 (5th generation) and Mk2 (5.5–6th generation).
- The aircraft’s development involves composite materials to reduce weight and radar visibility.
- The fly-by-wire flight control system will ensure stability and agility during combat.
- The digital cockpit will include AI-assisted decision systems and sensor fusion technology.
- The AMCA will be capable of air-to-air, air-to-ground, and electronic warfare missions.
- It is designed for high survivability, situational awareness, and network-centric warfare.
- The AMCA will place India among nations with indigenous fifth-generation fighter technology (alongside the U.S., China, and Russia). Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The aircraft is a critical component of India’s future air power strategy and self-reliance in aerospace defence.
- The Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) had earlier designed the LCA Tejas, providing technological groundwork for AMCA.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2024) Q. Consider the following aircraft: 1. Rafael 2. MiG-29 3. Tejas MK-1 How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None |
10. With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned miniyet and White-throated redstart are
(a) Birds
(b) Primates
(c) Reptiles
(d) Amphibians
Answer: (a) Birds
Explanation:
Ceylon frogmouth
Coppersmith barbet
Gray-chinned miniyet
White-throated redstart