Daily Current Affairs – 29-09-2025

1. Consider the following statements with respect to the Indian Ports Act, 2025:

1. The Indian Ports Act, 2025 replaces the Indian Ports Act, 1908.

2. Under the Act, the central government establishes the Maritime State Development Council (MSDC), chaired by the Prime Minister.

3. Under the Act, appeals from the Dispute Resolution Committees (DRCs) are directed to the High Court, bypassing civil courts.

4. The Act establishes State Maritime Boards as statutory entities tasked with managing and overseeing non-major ports.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: The Indian Ports Act, 2025 replaces outdated provisions of the Indian Ports Act, 1908, with modern & contemporary regulations.

Key Provisions of the Indian Ports Act, 2025:

• Replacement of the Indian Ports Act, 1908: The Bill repeals the outdated Indian Ports Act, 1908, and introduces a comprehensive framework for port management, including regulations on port operations, fee structures, and environmental safeguards. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• Establishment of the Maritime State Development Council (MSDC): The central government is required to establish the MSDC, chaired by the Union Minister for Ports, Shipping and Waterways. Other members include state ministers in charge of ports, secretaries of the Indian Navy and Coast Guard, and the secretary of the Union Ministry for Ports, Shipping and Waterways. The MSDC will issue guidelines on data collection, updation, storage, submission, and dissemination related to ports, ensuring transparency in port tariffs. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. 
• Empowerment of State Maritime Boards: State Maritime Boards are recognized as statutory bodies responsible for administering non-major ports. Hence statement 4 is correct. They are tasked with overseeing port planning, infrastructure development, licensing, tariff regulation, and enforcement of safety, security, and environmental compliance.
• Dispute Resolution Mechanism: State governments must establish Dispute Resolution Committees (DRCs) to adjudicate disputes among non-major ports, concessionaires, port users, and service providers. Appeals from these committees are directed to the High Court, bypassing civil courts. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
• Compliance with Global Maritime Conventions: The Act mandates compliance with international maritime conventions such as MARPOL (International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships) and the Ballast Water Management Convention. Ports are required to prepare pollution control and disaster management plans, which will be audited periodically by the central government.
• Tariff Transparency: The Act emphasizes transparency in port tariffs. It requires the publication of tariffs and charges electronically, ensuring that stakeholders have access to up-to-date information on port fees.
• Environmental Safeguards: Ports are mandated to implement measures for pollution control, disaster preparedness, and compliance with environmental standards. The central government is empowered to conduct audits to ensure adherence to these safeguards.
• Penalties and Enforcement: The Bill grants port officers, such as the conservator and health officer, powers of entry and inspection. However, the Bill lacks specific provisions for appeal mechanisms against penalties imposed by these officers.

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2172354

https://prsindia.org/billtrack/the-indian-ports-bill-2025#:~:text=The%20Bill%20seeks%20to%20replace,Council%20and%20State%20Maritime%20Boards

2. With reference to the ‘NAVYA’ initiative, consider the following statements:

1. It aimed at equipping adolescent girls aged 16–18 years.

2. It requires a minimum qualification of Class 10, with vocational training mainly in non-traditional job roles.

3. It is a pilot initiative of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Empowering Adolescent Girls for a Viksit Bharat

NAVYA – Nurturing Aspirations through Vocational Training for Young Adolescent Girls:

• The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD), in convergence with Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), will launch the joint pilot initiative of both the Ministries for Skilling of Adolescent Girls NAVYA – Nurturing Aspirations through Vocational Training for Young Adolescent Girls. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• NAVYA is a pilot initiative aimed at equipping adolescent girls aged 16–18 years with a minimum qualification of Class 10, with vocational training mainly in non-traditional job roles. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• This pilot initiative will be implemented in 27 Districts of the country which include Aspirational districts and districts of North eastern States spanning across 19 States, reflecting the Government’s inclusive and targeted approach to reaching underserved regions and vulnerable populations.
• As part of the launch, both Ministries will formalize their collaboration to institutionalize convergence on skilling efforts for adolescent girls.
• The programme will draw upon the strengths of Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) and other flagship skill development schemes.
• The launch event will feature interactions with adolescent girl trainees, distribution of PMKVY and PM Vishwakarma certificates.
• Through NAVYA, Government of India will reaffirm its commitment to empowering girls with skills, confidence, and opportunities—ensuring that every young woman becomes a catalyst in India’s journey towards a developed, self-reliant, and inclusive future.

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2172356

3. The ‘ECINET’, a e-sign feature recently launched by the Election Commission of India is aimed at:

(a) Facilitating electronic voting for overseas voters.

(b) Preventing fraudulent addition or deletion of names in the electoral roll.

(c) Enabling blockchain-based digital voting.

(d) Linking Voter ID with PAN for tax compliance.

Answer: (b) Preventing fraudulent addition or deletion of names in the electoral roll.

Explanation:

In NEWS: Election Commission launches e-sign feature for addition, deletion, and correction of voter names

ECINET:

• Election Commission of India (ECI) launched an e-sign authentication feature in ECINET for voter list addition, deletion, and correction.
• It uses Aadhaar-based OTP verification for applicants through their Aadhaar-linked mobile number.
• Ensures that only genuine voters can request changes to the electoral roll.
• ECINET is a unified digital platform integrating more than 40 ECI applications for voters, officials, and stakeholders.
• Initially piloted in select states during by-elections; nationwide rollout started in September 2025.

Significance:

• Prevents fraudulent voter roll manipulations like fake deletions or multiple additions. Hence option (b) is correct.
• Strengthens electoral integrity by creating a digital audit trail of applications.
• Promotes citizen convenience and digital governance by enabling remote, paperless services.
• Enhances transparency and accountability in electoral roll management.

Challenges & Concerns:

• Digital divide may exclude citizens without Aadhaar-linked mobiles or digital literacy.
• Privacy risks due to linking voter services with Aadhaar and mobile authentication.
• Dependence on Aadhaar ecosystem and telecom networks could cause delays or mismatches
• Need for fallback mechanisms for those unable to use e-sign.
• Administrative and legal challenges in ensuring uniform, inclusive implementation.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/elections/eci-launches-e-sign-feature-for-addition-deletion-correction-of-voter-names/article70089365.ece

4. With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Dugong is a strictly marine mammal, occurring exclusively in coastal and marine waters, and absent in freshwater ecosystems.

2. In India, its distribution is primarily restricted to the Gulf of Mannar, Palk Bay, Gulf of Kachchh, and the Andaman & Nicobar Islands.

3. It is classified as Vulnerable under the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

In NEWS: IUCN formally adopted a motion recognising India’s first Dugong Conservation Reserve in the Palk Bay spread over Thanjavur and Pudukkottai districts.

Dugong:

• Dugong (Dugong dugon) is a marine herbivorous mammal, also known as the “sea cow.”
• Closely related to manatees but found only in marine waters (not freshwater). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Feeds primarily on seagrass meadows, making it a keystone species for coastal ecosystems.

Distribution

• Found in warm coastal waters of the Indian Ocean and western Pacific Ocean.
• In India: concentrated in the Gulf of Mannar, Palk Bay, Gulf of Kachchh, and the Andaman & Nicobar Islands. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Conservation Status

• IUCN Red List: Vulnerable. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I (highest protection)
• CITES: Appendix I

Threats

• Loss and degradation of seagrass habitats due to coastal development, pollution, trawling.
• Bycatch mortality in gillnets and trawlers.
• Boat collisions and entanglement.
• Poaching for meat, oil, and body parts.
• Climate change affecting seagrass ecosystems.

Conservation Measures in India

• Dugong Conservation Reserve announced in Palk Bay, Tamil Nadu (2022).
• Inclusion under the “Dugong Recovery Program” of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• Efforts for seagrass restoration and community participation in Gulf of Mannar & Andaman regions.
• Awareness programmes among coastal fishing communities.

Source:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/dugong-redux/article70101867.ece#:~:text=IUCN%20recognition,over%20Thanjavur%20and%20Pudukkottai%20districts.

5. Consider the following information:

In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

Answer: (d) 1 and 4

Explanation:

In NEWS: Sacred Stages: Traditional Ritual Theatres of India

Four Key Indian Ritual Theatres on UNESCO’s ICH List

Kutiyattam (Kerala)

• Over 2,000 years old; blends Sanskrit drama with local Kerala traditions.
• Noted for codified eye & hand gestures.
• Performances can last up to 40 days.
• Performed in temple theatres (kuttampalams). Hence row 1 is correct.

Mudiyettu (Kerala)

• Annual ritual dance-drama of goddess Kali’s battle with demon Darika.
• Village-wide participation across castes.
• Involves ritual drawing (kalamezhuthu), masks, costumes. Hence row 2 is incorrect.

Ramman (Uttarakhand)

• Festival in honor of local deity Bhumiyal Devta.
• Masked dances, Ramayana recitations.
• Entire village contributes based on caste roles. Hence row 3 is incorrect.

Ramlila (Northern India)

• Dramatic enactment of Ramayana during Dussehra.
• Community-based with amateur actors.
• Performed in temple grounds, public squares. Hence row 4 is correct.

List of UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH) elements in India:

1. Kutiyattam – Kerala
2. Mudiyettu – Kerala
3. Ramman – Uttarakhand
4. Ramlila – Multiple states (mainly Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan)
5. Chhau Dance – Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal
6. Kalbelia Folk Songs and Dance – Rajasthan
7. Sankirtana – Manipur
8. Bamboo Craftsmanship – Northeast India (Various states)
9. Yoga – Nationwide (originated in Uttarakhand)
10. Mudiyettu – Kerala
11. Tangka Painting – Sikkim, Himachal Pradesh
12. Langa-Mangani Folk Music and Dance – Rajasthan
13. Chaurasia Bamboo Craft – Bihar
14. Kabir Nacha – Jharkhand

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2172657

6. With reference to AstroSat, consider the following statements:

1. It is the only satellite to study both visible and radio bands simultaneously.

2. It is the only space observatory capable of performing simultaneous multi-wavelength observations from ultraviolet to hard X-rays.

3. It is the first space observatory placed in a geostationary orbit.

4. It was the first Indian satellite dedicated solely to earth observation in multiple bands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: A decade among the stars: India’s first space observatory AstroSat completes 10 years

AstroSat:

• AstroSat is India’s first dedicated multi-wavelength space observatory. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Launched by ISRO on 28 September 2015 using PSLV-C30 from Sriharikota.
• It observes the universe in X-ray, ultraviolet, and optical spectral bands simultaneously (not radio waves). Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• AstroSat is in a low Earth orbit (~650 km), not geostationary. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• AstroSat is an astronomy/astrophysics satellite, not dedicated to Earth observation. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.

Key Features

• Orbit: Near Equatorial Orbit, ~650 km altitude.
• Payloads / Instruments:
  • Ultra Violet Imaging Telescope (UVIT) – studies star formation and galaxy evolution.
  • Large Area X-ray Proportional Counter (LAXPC) – timing and spectral studies of X-ray sources.
  • Soft X-ray Telescope (SXT) – studies supermassive black holes and neutron stars.
  • Cadmium Zinc Telluride Imager (CZTI) – studies high-energy X-rays and gamma-ray bursts.
  • Scanning Sky Monitor (SSM) – detects transient X-ray sources.

Objectives

• Study high-energy phenomena like black holes, neutron stars, pulsars.
• Investigate star birth, stellar evolution, and supernovae.
• Monitor active galactic nuclei (AGN) and binary star systems.
• Provide simultaneous multi-wavelength observations, a unique capability among global observatories.

Achievements

• Detected ultraviolet light from a galaxy 9.3 billion light years away.
• Studied X-ray emission from Crab pulsar and polarization of gamma-ray bursts.
• Helped in understanding binary star systems and quasars.
• Contributed data to global astronomy missions through collaborations.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/a-decade-among-the-stars-indias-first-space-observatory-astrosat-completes-10-years/article70104675.ece

7. Consider the following biosphere reserves:

1. Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve

2. Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve

3. Dehang-Dibang Biosphere Reserve

4. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve

5. Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve

How many of the above Biosphere Reserves are recognized by the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves under the MAB programme?  

(a) Only two  

(b) Only three  

(c) Only four  

(d) All the five

Answer: (b) Only three

Explanation:

In NEWS: Cold Desert named India’s 13th UNESCO biosphere reserve

Biosphere Reserves in India:

There are a total of 18 biosphere reserves in India, but only 13 are part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves under the MAB programme. Cold Desert becomes India’s 13th UNESCO Biosphere Reserve

UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves under the MAB programme:

1. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve – Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka
2. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve – Tamil Nadu
3. Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve – West Bengal
4. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve – Uttarakhand
5. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve – Meghalaya
6. Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve – Madhya Pradesh
7. Similipal Biosphere Reserve – Odisha
8. Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve – Andaman & Nicobar Islands
9. Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve – Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh
10. Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve – Kerala, Tamil Nadu
11. Khangchendzonga National Park – Sikkim
12. Panna Biosphere Reserve – Madhya Pradesh
13. Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve – Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir

Other Biosphere Reserves:

1. Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve – Andhra Pradesh
2. Kachchh Biosphere Reserve – Gujarat
3. Dihang-Dibang Biosphere Reserve – Arunachal Pradesh
4. Dehang-Dibang Biosphere Reserve – Arunachal Pradesh (sometimes same as above, but listed separately in some sources)
5. Manas – Assam

Hence option (b) is correct.

Source:https://www.downtoearth.org.in/environment/cold-desert-named-indias-13th-unesco-biosphere-reserve#google_vignette

8. With reference to Agni-Prime Missile, Consider the following statements:

1. It is an intermediate-range ballistic missile developed by India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).

2. It has a strike range of up to 2,000 kilometers.

3. The missile is capable of launching from a Rail-based mobile launcher system.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two  

(c) All the three  

(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three

Explanation:

In NEWS: DRDO conducts rail-based launch of Agni-Prime missile

Agni-Prime Missile Successfully Test-Fired from Rail-Based Mobile Launcher :

• Test Conducted By: DRDO and Strategic Forces Command (SFC)
• Missile Range: Up to 2,000 km (Intermediate Range)
• Launch Platform: Rail-based mobile launcher system — first-ever launch from this platform. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Key Features:

• Rapid, low-visibility deployment
• Cross-country mobility
• Test Result: Successful, met all mission objectives

Significance:

• Paves way for induction of rail-mobile launch systems
• India joins select group of nations with rail-based canisterized missile launch capability
• Road-mobile Agni-Prime version already inducted after trials

Agni-Prime Missile:

• Agni-Prime is an intermediate-range ballistic missile developed by India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It has a strike range of up to 2,000 kilometers. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The missile features advanced technology, including improved accuracy and enhanced mobility.
• It is designed to be launched from multiple platforms, including road-mobile and rail-mobile launchers.

Key Features and Capabilities

• Canisterized Launch: Designed for quick deployment and enhanced mobility.
• Enhanced Propulsion: Incorporates advanced composite materials for improved performance.
• Advanced Guidance: Features state-of-the-art navigation and control systems for precision targeting.
• Strategic Deterrence: Strengthens India’s credible deterrence capabilities with a flexible and survivable missile system.

Source:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/intermediate-range-agni-prime-missile-successfully-tested-from-rail-based-mobile-launcher-system/article70091825.ece

9. With reference to the ‘Mukhyamantri Mahila Rojgar Yojana’ consider the following statements:

1. It aims to promote self-employment and small-scale entrepreneurship among women, especially from rural and economically weaker sections.

2. Women above 25 years, usually below a defined income threshold are only eligible for the scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Modi unveils scheme for women in Bihar, criticises RJD’s reign

Mukhyamantri Mahila Rojgar Yojana (MMRY):

• Mukhyamantri Mahila Rojgar Yojana (MMRY) is a women-focused employment and entrepreneurship scheme launched by various Indian states (for example, Uttar Pradesh) to empower women economically.
• Aim: To promote self-employment and small-scale entrepreneurship among women, especially from rural and economically weaker sections. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Provides financial assistance, skill development, and subsidy support for setting up small businesses or micro-enterprises.
• Eligibility: Women above 18 years, usually below a defined income threshold, and in some cases, members of Self Help Groups (SHGs). Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• Financial Assistance: Subsidy or loan support ranging from Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 50,000 depending on the nature of the enterprise.
• Skill Development: Training programs in trades like tailoring, handicrafts, food processing, and small-scale manufacturing.
• Objective: Promote women entrepreneurship, self-reliance, and employment generation, reducing dependence on wage labor.

Source: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/pm-modi-inaugurates-mukhyamantri-mahila-rojgar-yojana-via-video-conferencing-from-new-delhi/

10. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?

(a) Ant

(b) Cockroach

(c) Crab

(d) Spider

Answer: (a) Ant

Explanation:

• Certain species of ants, particularly leaf-cutter ants (genus Atta and Acromyrmex), are well known for cultivating fungi.
• These ants cut leaves and carry them back to their nests.
• Instead of eating the leaves directly, they use them as a substrate to grow a specific type of fungus.
• The ants then feed on the fungus, not the leaves.
• This is a classic example of mutualism: the fungus gets a stable growing environment, and the ants get food.