PRELIMS CURRENT AFFAIRS – 19/07/24

01. With reference to the Rainfed Area Development Programme(RADP), consider the following statements:

1. RADP is a sub-scheme of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana.
2. State Agriculture Department is the nodal agency for implementing RADP.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (d) Neither 1 nor 2

In News: National Rainfed Area Authority organised a National Workshop on ‘Climate Resilient Rainfed Agriculture’ recently.

Explanation:

• The National Rainfed Area Authority organised a National Workshop on ‘Climate Resilient Rainfed Agriculture’ recenlty.
• It provided a crucial platform to the State & Central Government representatives, agricultural experts, researchers and policymakers to discuss innovative strategies and technologies for enhancing crop production in rainfed areas.
• NARR(CEO) called for policy reforms that prioritize the growth of landless, small & marginal farmers in Rainfed areas. As Rainfed areas are more vulnerable to extreme climatic events, he advocated some of the innovative and technology driven agricultural practices to create climate resilience in Rainfed Agriculture. 
• He also highlighted the potential of the RAD scheme which is being implemented as a component under cafeteria approach of ‘Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana’ (RKVY) for transition towards CRRA. Further, he called for effective convergence of the RAD scheme with various developmental programs to ensure optimal resource utilization. 
• The workshop provided a crucial platform to the State & Central Government representatives, agricultural experts, researchers and policymakers to discuss innovative strategies and technologies for enhancing crop production in rainfed areas by adopting climate resilience approach.

RAD programme:

• Rainfed Area Development (RAD) scheme was launched in 2014-15 to mainstream development of rainfed areas in a sustainable manner. 
• It adopts an area-based approach, focuses on Integrated Farming System (IFS) for enhancing productivity and minimizing risks associated with climatic variability. Under this system, crops/ cropping system is integrated with activities like horticulture, livestock, fishery, agro-forestry, apiculture etc. to enable farmers not only in maximizing farm returns for sustaining livelihood, but also to mitigate the impacts of drought, flood or other extreme weather events with the income opportunity from allied activities during crop damage.
• All the rainfed areas (i.e. areas which are not covered under assured means of irrigation) having a large extent of cultivable land and potential for increasing agriculture productivity are to be covered under RADP. 
• Within the rainfed areas, priority will be given to arid, semi-arid and sub-humid ecosystems. 
• The districts having less than 60% of cultivated area under irrigation and influenced by arid (31), semi-arid (133) and sub-humid (175) agroecosystems are to be prioritized for RADP. Backward districts (85) in the Kerala & North Eastern States which are under humid agro-eco-systems but having less than 30% cultivated area under irrigation would also be covered under the programme.
• The RADP will be implemented as a sub-scheme of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY). State Agriculture Department, the nodal agency for implementation of RKVY, will also be implementing RADP. RADP will be implemented in a projectized mode. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is correct.
• A financial assistance of up to Rs. 30,000/- per family can be given for adoption of integrated farming systems.
• A cluster of 100 hectare or more (contiguous or non-contiguous in difficult terrain with close proximity in a village/adjoining villages) may be adopted to derive noticeable impact of convergence and encourage local participation and for future replication of the model in larger areas.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2034033

https://www.agriwelfare.gov.in/sites/default/files/RADP.pdf

https://www.myscheme.gov.in/schemes/rad

02. Consider the following statements:

1. Gevra is the largest coal mine in India.
2. Gevra is located in the state of Odisha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (a) 1 only

In News: Atmanirbhar Bharat: Two of the World’s Five Largest Coal Mines Now in India

Explanation:

• Chhattisgarh-based Coal India subsidiary South Eastern Coalfields Limited’s (SECL) Gevra and Kusmunda coal mines have secured the 2nd and 4th spot in the list of the world’s 10 largest coal mines released by WorldAtlas.com.
• Located in the Korba district of Chhattisgarh state, these two mines produce more 100 million tons of coal annually accounting for about 10% of India’s total coal production.
• The Gevra opencast mine has an annual production capacity of 70 million tons and produced 59 million tons of coal in FY 23-24. The mine started operations in 1981 and it has enough coal reserves to meet the country’s energy requirements for the next 10 years.
• Kusmunda OC mine produced more than 50 million tons of coal in FY 23-24, only the second mine in India after Gevra to achieve this feat.

About Gevra

• Gevra is one of the megaprojects of South Eastern Coalfields Limited and became the largest coal mine in the country last year with annual production for FY 22-23 reaching 52.5 million tons and has been contributing towards energy security of the country for more than 40 years. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Located in the Korba district of Chhattisgarh state, these two mines produce more 100 million tons of coal annually accounting for about 10% of India’s total coal production. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• The mine has a strike length of around 10 KM and a breadth of 4 KM. Eco-friendly blast-free mining technology in the form of Surface Miner, Ripper Mining have been deployed in the mine and one of the highest capacityHEMM machines like 42 Cum shovel and 240-ton dumper combination are used for overburden removal in the mine. It also has first-mile connectivity equipped with a conveyer belt, Silos and Rapid Loading System for swift and eco-friendly coal evacuation.

Bird’s eye view of mining operations in Gevra megaproject

Drone shot of operations at Kusmunda megaproject.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2034007

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2011622

03. Report on “Electronics: Powering India’s Participation in Global Value Chains”, released recently by?

1. World Bank
2. Ministry of Commerce and Industries
3. Asian Development Bank
4. NITI Aayog

Answer:  (d) NITI Aayog

In News: Report on “Electronics: Powering India’s Participation in Global Value Chains” by NITI Aayog released today

Explanation:

• NITI Aayog recently launched the report titled “Electronics: Powering India’s Participation in Global Value Chains”. The Report extensively analyses India’s electronics sector, emphasizing its potential and challenges. It also outlines specific interventions needed for India to emerge as a global manufacturing hub for electronics. Hence option(d) is correct.
• The report recommends strategic interventions across fiscal, financial, regulatory, and infrastructure domains to support this ambitious growth trajectory. These include promoting components and capital goods manufacturing, incentivising R&D and Design,  tariff rationalisation, skilling initiatives, facilitation of technology transfers, and infrastructure development to foster a robust electronics manufacturing ecosystem in India.
• Global Value Chains (GVCs) are critical in modern manufacturing, involving international collaboration across design, production, marketing, and distribution. They represent 70% of international trade, highlighting India’s urgent need to enhance its participation, especially in electronics, semiconductors, automobiles, chemicals, and pharmaceuticals. Electronics, in particular, is pivotal, with 75% of its exports originating from GVCs.
• India’s electronics sector has experienced rapid growth, reaching USD 155 billion in FY23. Production nearly doubled from USD 48 billion in FY17 to USD 101 billion in FY23, driven primarily by mobile phones, which now constitute 43% of total electronics production. India has significantly reduced its reliance on smartphone imports, now manufacturing 99% domestically.
• Initiatives like Make in India and Digital India, improved infrastructure and ease of doing business, supported by various incentives, have stimulated domestic manufacturing and attracted foreign investments. Despite these strides, India’s electronics market remains relatively moderate, accounting for only 4% of the global market, which has so far focussed primarily on assembly, with limited capabilities in design and component manufacturing.
• The global electronics market, valued at USD 4.3 trillion, is dominated by countries like China, Taiwan, USA, South Korea, Vietnam and Malaysia. India currently exports approximately USD 25 billion annually, representing less than 1% of the global share despite  4% share in global demand. To enhance competitiveness, India needs to localize high-tech components, strengthen design capabilities through R&D investments, and forge strategic partnerships with global technology leaders.
• The current value of India’s electronics production stands impressively at USD 101 billion as of FY 23. This figure comprises USD 86 billion in finished goods production and USD 15 billion in components manufacturing. During the same period, exports totalled ~USD 25 billion, reflecting India’s increasing role in the global electronics market. As regards domestic value addition, the sector has also contributed ranging between 15% to 18%, and has generated approximately 1.3 million jobs.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2034096

04. With reference to the KIRTI Program, consider the following statements:

1. It was envisioned to develop an integrated talent identification architecture based on modern ICT tools and global best practices. 
2. It is the initiative of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (a) 1 only

In News: Khelo India Rising Talent Identification (KIRTI) Program to get Fresh Boost from Union Minister Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya

Explanation:

• As the Paris Olympics draws near, the Government’s ambitious Khelo India Rising Talent Identification (KIRTI) program is set to get a fresh boost under the leadership of the Union Minister for Youth Affairs & Sports and Labour & Employment, Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya. He will inaugurate the Phase 2 of the initiative in New Delhi on 20.07.2024. Earlier, the first phase of KIRTI was launched in Chandigarh on March 12 this year. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• KIRTI aims to conduct 20 lakh assessments across the country throughout the year to identify talent through notified Talent Assessment Centres. A scouting and assessment programme of this scale is a first in India and comes at a time when the nation wants to become a top 10 sports nation in the world by 2036 and among the top five by 2047. 

About KIRTI Program:

• KIRTI (Khelo India Rising Talent Identification) has been envisioned to develop an integrated talent identification architecture based on modern ICT tools and global best practices. It aims to streamline the whole process of grassroots talent identification on a single platform. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The roots of the project KIRTI are based on an athlete-centric approach wherein at every step the process of Talent Identification has been made more broad-based and accessible.
• Project KIRTI with its decentralised and pocket-based talent identification approach will help in achieving the twin objectives of the Khelo India Scheme i.e. excellence in sports, and mass participation in sports.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2034000

05. With reference to the India Maritime Centre, consider the following statements:

Statement -I:

IMC is established by the Indian Meteorological Department under Maritime India Vision 2030.

Statement -II: 

IMC aims to provide a unified platform for the Indian maritime industry, acting as a think tank for policy formulation and industry recommendations. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement – I and Statement – II are correct and Statement – II is the correct explanation for Statement – I
2. Both Statement – I and Statement – II are correct and Statement – II is not the correct explanation for Statement – I
3. Statement – I is correct but Statement – II is incorrect
4. Statement – I is incorrect but Statement – II is correct

Answer:  (d) Statement – I is incorrect but Statement – II is correct

In News: India Maritime Centre (IMC) moves closer to reality under the Maritime India Vision 2030

Explanation:

• The Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways (MoPSW) is establishing the India Maritime Centre (IMC), a cornerstone initiative under the Maritime India Vision 2030. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The IMC aims to provide a unified platform for the Indian maritime industry, acting as a think tank for policy formulation and industry recommendations. Its primary goals include strengthening India’s participation in the International Maritime Organization (IMO) and global maritime forums, creating a robust domestic maritime sector through a unified and synchronized approach, conducting flagship events to build a strong global brand for the Indian maritime cluster, providing expert analysis and recommendations for sustainable growth, establishing platforms for industry stakeholders to collaborate and network, and creating a pool of funds to support the industry, including startups. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The establishment of the India Maritime Centre marks a significant milestone in MoPSWs efforts to bolster the maritime sector in India. The IMC will serve as a central platform for collaboration, innovation, and policy advocacy, ensuring sustainable growth and enhancing India’s position in the global maritime community. MoPSW is committed to make the IMC a world-class institution that drives the future of India’s maritime industry.
• The IMC is poised to be a pivotal institution in advancing India’s maritime interests both domestically and internationally. By fostering collaboration, driving policy advocacy, and providing expert analysis, the IMC will play a crucial role in shaping the future of India’s maritime sector.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2034199

06. With reference to the National Rainfed Area Authority, consider the following statements:

1. It is the attached office of the Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation.
2. It assists states & UTs in preparation of Annual Action Plan for implementing “Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojna” (PMKSY), for enhancing access to irrigation water & achieving water use efficiency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (b) 2 only

In News: National Rainfed Area Authority organised a National Workshop on ‘Climate Resilient Rainfed Agriculture’ recently.

Explanation:

• The National Rainfed Area Authority organised a National Workshop on ‘Climate Resilient Rainfed Agriculture’ recenlty.
• It provided a crucial platform to the State & Central Government representatives, agricultural experts, researchers and policymakers to discuss innovative strategies and technologies for enhancing crop production in rainfed areas.

The National Rainfed Area Authority

• The National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) was constituted as an attached office of the then Department of Agriculture & Cooperation (now Department of Agriculture & Farmers welfare), Ministry of Agriculture (now Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare) on 3rd November, 2006. The Authority has been meeting its obligations as mandated by a Cabinet decision, and the learnings from more than a decade of experience offer changes needed to be effected to the future roadmap of agricultural transformation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• specific interventions by NRAA, and the first set of interventions needed are to:
  • identify& collate best practices for rainfed agriculture available across different research organizations & academic institutions, and offer recommendations for sustainable development of agriculture in rainfed and vulnerable districts across the country; 
  • develop area-specific farming systems for critically vulnerable 150 districts (now 167 as per Composite Index-based district prioritisation), and promote sustainable and profitable agriculture; 
  • pilot best practices in priority drought-vulnerable districts to demonstrate their efficacy, and lay a roadmap for scaling up across all the vulnerable districts; 
  • develop various modules for master trainers, farming system, water budgeting and accounting for these areas.; 
  • assist states and union territories (UTs) in revisiting the District Irrigating Plans (DIPs), if required, from the perspective of addressing the district-specific water budget in critically drought-prone districts in particular, and all the districts at large in view of climate change implications; 
  • assist states & UTs in preparation of Annual Action Plan for implementing “Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojna” (PMKSY), for enhancing access to irrigation water & achieving water use efficiency (per drop more crop);  Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • suggest short & long term plans for sustainable development of rainfed area by conservation of water, optimal harvesting of water and agroecology-based production systems; 
  • set an appropriate research agenda and roll out action research projects to draw evidence-based policy recommendations; 
  • monitor and supervise programme implementation in all the identified critically-vulnerable drought prone districts in particular, and all the rainfed districts at large; and 
  • identify and recommend various agro-forestry models and mulching systems suitable for vulnerable districts across the country.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2034033

https://nraa.gov.in/CEOMssg.aspx

07. Mashko Piro people (largest uncontacted tribe in the world) recently seen in the news, belongs to?

1. India
2. Peru
3. West Indies
4. Congo

Answer:  (b) Peru

In News:Why recent sighting of Peru’s uncontacted Mashko Piro people is concerning

Explanation:

• Indigenous rights NGO Survival International has released rare pictures of the Mashco Piro tribespeople, one of the world’s 100-odd uncontacted tribes.
• Almost all of them live in the jungles of Amazon and Southeast Asia. The Mashco Piro, possibly numbering more than 750, are believed to be the largest of such tribes. These nomadic hunter-gatherers live in the Amazon jungles of the Madre de Dios Region, close to Peru’s border with Brazil and Bolivia. Hence option(b) is correct.
• Peru’s government has forbidden all contact with the Mashco Piro, fearing the spread of a disease among the population to which it has no immunity. The tribe is very reclusive, only occasionally contacting the native but contacting Yine people. Much of what is known about the Mashco Piro comes from Yine accounts.
• In 2002, the Peru government created the Madre de Dios Territorial Reserve to protect the territory of the Mashco Piro. But large parts of their traditional ground lie outside the reserve. Swathes of land have since been sold off as logging concessions, giving companies the right to fell the evergreen forests for timber and other produce.

Source:

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/why-recent-sighting-of-peru-uncontacted-mashko-piro-people-is-concerning-9462206/

08. Consider the following:

1. Population
2. Fertility
3. Income level
4. Geography

How many of the above are taken for consideration in the horizontal devolution of funds between the states by the Finance Commission of India? 

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All Four

Answer:  (d) All Four

In News: What is the role of the Finance Commission? | Explained

Explanation:

• The sixteenth Finance Commission headed by former Niti Aayog Vice-Chairman Arvind Panagariya has begun its work by inviting suggestions from the public on the mandate set for it by the Centre. 
• The latest Finance Commission, which consists of five members including the chairman, was constituted in December last year and is expected to submit its recommendations by October, 2025. Its recommendations will be valid for five years starting from April 1, 2026.

Finance Commission

• The Finance Commission is a constitutional body that recommends how tax revenues collected by the Central government should be distributed among the Centre and various States in the country. 
• The Centre, however, is not legally bound to implement the suggestions made by the Finance Commission. 
• The Commission is reconstituted typically every five years and usually takes a couple of years to make its recommendations to the Centre.
• The Finance Commission decides what proportion of the Centre’s net tax revenue goes to the States overall (vertical devolution) and how this share for the States is distributed among various States (horizontal devolution). 
• The horizontal devolution of funds between States is usually decided based on a formula created by the Commission that takes into account a State’s population, fertility level, income level, geography, etc. The vertical devolution of funds, however, is not based on any such objective formula. Hence option(d) is correct.
• The 13th, 14th and 15th Finance Commissions recommended that the Centre share 32%, 42% and 41% of funds, respectively, from the divisible pool with States. It should be noted that the Centre may also aid States through additional grants for certain schemes that are jointly funded by the Centre and the States

Source:

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-is-the-role-of-the-finance-commission-explained/article68419381.ece

09. Consider the following statements:

1. The Foreigners Tribunals are quasi-judicial bodies formed through the Citizenship (Amendment) Act of 2019, to let local authorities in a State refer a person suspected to be a foreigner to tribunals. 
2. The Foreigners Tribunals are currently exclusive to Assam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (b) 2 only

In News: How do Assam’s Foreigners Tribunals function?

Explanation:

• Recently, the Assam government asked the Border wing of the State’s police not to forward cases of non-Muslims who entered India illegally before 2014 to the Foreigners Tribunals (FTs). 
• This was in keeping with the Citizenship (Amendment) Act of 2019 that provides a citizenship application window for non-Muslims — Hindus, Sikhs, Christians, Parsis, Jains, and Buddhists — who allegedly fled persecution in Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan.

The Foreigners Tribunals

• The FTs are quasi-judicial bodies formed through the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order of 1964 under Section 3 of the Foreigners’ Act of 1946, to let local authorities in a State refer a person suspected to be a foreigner to tribunals. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The FTs are currently exclusive to Assam as cases of “illegal immigrants” are dealt with according to the Foreigners’ Act in other States. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Each FT is headed by a member drawn from judges, advocates, and civil servants with judicial experience. 
• The Ministry of Home Affairs told Parliament in 2021 that there are 300 FTs in Assam but the website of the State’s Home and Political Department says that only 100 FTs are currently functioning, beginning with 11 established before the Illegal Migrants (Determination by Tribunals) Act of 1983 was scrapped in 2005.

Function of Foreigner Tribunal:

• According to the 1964 order, an FT has the powers of a civil court in certain matters such as summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person and examining him or her on oath and requiring the production of any document. 
• A tribunal is required to serve a notice in English or the official language of the State to a person alleged to be a foreigner within 10 days of receiving the reference from the authority concerned. Such a person has 10 days to reply to the notice and another 10 days to produce evidence in support of his or her case. An FT has to dispose of a case within 60 days of reference. 
• If the person fails to provide any proof of citizenship, the FT can send him or her to a detention centre, now called transit camp, for deportation later.

Source:

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/assam/how-do-assams-foreigners-tribunals-function-explained/article68419385.ece

10. Which one of the following categories of ‘Fundamental Rights incorporated against untouchability as a form of discrimination? (UPSC 2020)

1. Right against Exploitation 
2. Right to Freedom
3. Right to Constitutional Remedies 
4. Right to Equality 

Answer: (d) Right to Equality 

Explanation: 

• Untouchability as a form of discrimination goes against the notion of equality amongst citizens irrespective of caste. 
• Therefore, it has been incorporated under Article 17 as one of the five rights under the spectrum of right to equality (Articles 14-18) .Hence option(d) is correct.