1. The “Shram Shakti Niti 2025” recently seen in news is primarily associated with:
(a) India’s policy framework for labour welfare and social security reform.
(b) A new national policy on renewable energy skill development.
(c) The government’s AI framework for green manufacturing.
(d) A scheme for formalising micro-enterprises through digital credit.
Answer: (a) India’s policy framework for labour welfare and social security reform.
Explanation:
In NEWS: Exploited workers, a labour policy’s empty promises – The draft Shram Shakti Niti 2025 further exposes the gaps in India’s labour landscape
The “Shram Shakti Niti 2025”:
- Released by: Ministry of Labour & Employment (MoLE), 2025 (Draft for public consultation).
- Vision: Build a “Fair, Inclusive and Future-Ready Labour Ecosystem” aligned with Viksit Bharat @ 2047.
- Nature: India’s first integrated National Labour & Employment Policy.
- Approach: Shifts focus from regulation → facilitation → empowerment.
Hence option (a) is correct.
Key Objectives / Pillars
- Universal Social Security
- Coverage for all workers — formal, informal, gig, migrant.
- Proposes portable, lifelong social-security accounts.
- Integration with e-Shram, ESIC, and EPFO frameworks.
- Employment Generation & Future-Readiness
- Skill-matching through a Digital Employment Stack.
- Promote green jobs, digital jobs, and lifelong skilling.
- Transform National Career Service (NCS) into Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) for employment.
- Women & Youth Empowerment
- Target: 35% female labour-force participation by 2030.
- Incentives for flexible work, childcare support, and safe workplaces.
- Ease of Compliance & Labour Governance Reform
- Simplify inspections via risk-based digital systems.
- Encourage self-certification, single-window compliance.
- Labour Ministry’s role redefined from regulator → job facilitator.
- Occupational Safety, Health & Working Conditions
- Strengthen safety audits, OSH codes, and data-driven monitoring.
- Institutional & Governance Framework
- National Labour & Employment Policy Implementation Council (NLPI) at Centre.
- State Labour Missions and District Labour & Employment Resource Centres (DLERCs).
- Promotes cooperative federalism and convergence across ministries.
- Digital and Green Transition
- Leverage AI, data analytics, and digital worker identity.
- Support green enterprises, circular economy jobs.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (a) Central Statistics Office (b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (c) Labour Bureau (d) National Technical Manpower Information System |
2. Which of the following statements regarding the Export Promotion Mission (EPM) is/are correct?
1. The Mission aims to strengthen India’s export competitiveness, particularly for MSMEs, first-time exporters, and labour-intensive sectors.
2. It is implemented under the Department of Commerce in collaboration with the Ministry of MSME and the Ministry of Finance.
3. It consolidates existing schemes such as the Interest Equalisation Scheme (IES) and the Market Access Initiative (MAI).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: Cabinet approves Export Promotion Mission to strengthen India’s export ecosystem with an outlay of Rs.25,060 crore
Export Promotion Mission (EPM):
- The Export Promotion Mission (EPM) was approved by the Union Cabinet in 2025 as a flagship initiative from the Union Budget 2025–26.
- The total financial outlay is ₹25,060 crore for the period FY 2025–26 to FY 2030–31.
- Objective: To strengthen India’s export competitiveness, especially for MSMEs, first-time exporters, and labour-intensive sectors. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The Mission replaces multiple fragmented export schemes with a single, outcome-based and adaptive mechanism.
- Nodal Ministry: Department of Commerce, in collaboration with the Ministry of MSME and Ministry of Finance. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The Mission operates under a collaborative framework involving Financial Institutions, Export Promotion Councils, Commodity Boards, and State Governments.
- Implementing Agency: Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT).
- All processes — from application to disbursal — will be managed through a dedicated digital platform integrated with existing trade systems.
- The Mission consists of two integrated sub-schemes:
- NIRYAT PROTSAHAN: Focus on affordable trade finance (interest subvention, export factoring, collateral guarantees, credit enhancement, etc.)
- NIRYAT DISHA: Focus on non-financial enablers (export quality support, branding, packaging, trade fairs, logistics, and capacity building).
- The EPM consolidates existing schemes such as the Interest Equalisation Scheme (IES) and Market Access Initiative (MAI). Hence statement 3 is correct.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2023) Q. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India accounts for 32% of global export of goods. Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s Production-linked Incentive’ scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? [a] Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-ll is the correct explanation for Statement-I. b] Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-l is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. [c] Statement-l is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. [d] Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2189381
3. Which among the following can become highly explosive when mixed with fuel oil?
(a) Ammonium nitrate
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Calcium carbonate
(d) Potassium sulfate
Answer: (a) Ammonium nitrate
Explanation:
In NEWS:
- The Delhi Police’s Special Cell is investigating a possible connection between the Red Fort blast and a 358 kg ammonium nitrate haul seized in Faridabad.
- Forensic analysis aims to determine whether the same explosive chemical was used in both cases.
- This case revives concerns about industrial chemicals being diverted for terror use, a key issue in India’s internal security and counter-terrorism framework.
Ammonium Nitrate – Explosive nature:
- Not explosive by itself — becomes highly explosive when mixed with fuel oil or other accelerants like Ammonium Nitrate Fuel Oil (ANFO). Hence option (a) is correct.
- Can cause massive damage, as seen in Beirut (2020) and several Indian blasts (Hyderabad 2013, Pune 2010).
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2025) Q.What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media? (a) These are alternatives to hydrofluorocarbon refrigerants (b) These are explosives in military weapons (c) These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles (d) These are fuels for rocket propulsion |
4. The Mokolodi Nature Reserve is located in
(a) Angola
(b) Botswana
(c)Namibia
(d) Egypt
Answer: (b) Botswana
Explanation:
In NEWS:
- The President of India, Smt. Droupadi Murmu, and the President of Botswana, H.E. Advocate Duma Gideon Boko, visited the Mokolodi Nature Reserve near Gaborone on the morning of November 13, 2025.
- During their visit, the two Presidents witnessed the release of captured cheetahs from the Ghanzi region of Botswana into the quarantine facility at Mokolodi Nature Reserve.
- This event marked Botswana’s symbolic donation of eight cheetahs to India under the framework of Project Cheetah, a flagship conservation initiative of the Government of India.
Mokolodi Nature Reserve:
- Mokolodi Nature Reserve is a well-known private, non-profit wildlife reserve located near Gaborone, the capital city of Botswana. Hence option (b) is correct.
- The reserve is home to a wide range of indigenous African wildlife species, including giraffes, zebras, impalas, kudus, warthogs, wildebeests, hippos, and crocodiles.
- It also provides a sanctuary for white rhinoceroses, one of the key conservation species in the park.
- Leopards, cheetahs, and hyenas are occasionally sighted, though they are more elusive.
- The area supports diverse birdlife, making it a popular destination for birdwatching enthusiasts.
- The vegetation primarily consists of thornveld savanna, characterized by acacia trees, shrubs, and grassland ecosystems typical of Botswana’s semi-arid climate.
- Mokolodi Nature Reserve has become a flagship model for private conservation in Botswana, demonstrating how wildlife protection and education can coexist sustainably.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2017) Q. Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (a) Corbett National Park (b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary (c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary (d) Sariska National Park |
5. Consider the following statements with respect to the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for White Goods:
I. It is implemented by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
II. The scheme covers both air conditioner components and LED components.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
In NEWS: 13 Companies file applications under PLI Scheme for White Goods (ACs & LED Lights) with committed investment of Rs. 1,914 crore
PLI Scheme for White Goods:
- The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for White Goods was approved by the Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi on 7th April 2021.
- The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the implementing agency for this scheme. Hence statement I is correct.
- The scheme has a total financial outlay of ₹6,238 crore, to be disbursed over a period of five years.
- The objective of the PLI Scheme for White Goods is to create a complete component ecosystem for Air Conditioners (ACs) and LED Lights in India.
- The scheme aims to enhance domestic manufacturing, reduce import dependency, and promote exports of components and sub-assemblies of ACs and LED products.
- It seeks to increase domestic value addition from the current 15–20 per cent to about 75–80 per cent, thereby strengthening India’s manufacturing capabilities.
- The scheme provides incentives on incremental sales of goods manufactured in India to eligible companies that invest in the target sectors.
- The incentive is linked to performance parameters such as incremental sales and investment, ensuring accountability and results-based support.
- The scheme covers two major segments:
- Air Conditioner Components: Compressors, motors, copper tubes, aluminium stock, heat exchangers, control assemblies, and other sub-assemblies.
- LED Components: LED chips, drivers, PCB assemblies, heat sinks, and other electronic parts. Hence statement II is correct.
- The PLI scheme encourages the setting up of greenfield manufacturing units and expansion of existing facilities to promote large-scale production.
- It also aims to attract global component manufacturers to India and integrate them into the domestic supply chain.
- The scheme is designed to generate large-scale employment and boost skill development in manufacturing and allied sectors.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2023) Q. Consider, the following statements: Statement-I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods. Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2189520
6. Consider the following statements about Graphite mining in India:
1. India is largely self-sufficient in Graphite production as it exports more than it imports.
2. Graphite with higher fixed-carbon content attracts a lower royalty rate under the new structure.
3. The royalty for Graphite now depends on its grade, measured by fixed-carbon percentage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Cabinet approves rationalization of royalty rates of Graphite, Caesium, Rubidium and Zirconium minerals critical for Green Energy
The Cabinet approved revised royalty rates for four minerals:
- Caesium: 2 % of Average Sale Price (ASP) of caesium metal contained in the ore.
- Rubidium: 2 % of ASP of rubidium metal contained in the ore.
- Zirconium: 1 % of ASP of zirconium metal contained in the ore.
- Graphite: For graphite with ≥ 80 % fixed carbon → 2 % of ASP on ad valorem basis; for less than 80 % fixed carbon → 4 % of ASP on ad valorem basis.
Graphite in India:
- India is not self-sufficient in graphite production. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Around 60% of India’s graphite demand is met through imports, mainly from China and other countries.
- Domestic production remains limited due to low-grade deposits and underdeveloped mining.
- The Cabinet in November 2025 approved 2% royalty for graphite with 80% or more fixed carbon, and 4% for graphite with less than 80% fixed carbon.
- Hence, higher-grade graphite (more carbon) attracts lower royalty, encouraging exploration and production of high-quality ore. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The royalty for Graphite now depends on its grade, measured by fixed-carbon percentage. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Earlier, royalty was charged on a per-tonne basis, regardless of grade.
- Under the new system, royalty is ad valorem (as a percentage of the average sale price) and linked to the grade of graphite, measured by fixed-carbon content.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2023) Q. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most its electricity production. Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2189392
7. With reference to Exercise Malabar 2025, consider the following statements:
1. It was initially a trilateral exercise between India, Japan, and the United States.
2. Australia joined the exercise as a permanent member in 2020.
3. It is a defence partnership exercise, not a military alliance.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation:
In NEWS: Australia Joins India, Japan, and U.S. for Major Quad Naval Drill, Exercise Malabar 2025
Exercise Malabar 2025
- Exercise Malabar is a multinational naval exercise among the Quad nations — India, Japan, Australia, and the United States.
- The 2025 edition includes Australia as an active participant, emphasizing Indo-Pacific security cooperation.
- It aims to strengthen naval coordination, interoperability, and operational readiness among the four countries.
Historical Background
- Launched in 1992 as a bilateral India–US naval exercise. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Japan became a permanent member in 2015.
- Australia rejoined permanently in 2020, making it a Quadrilateral exercise. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It has since evolved into a core maritime initiative of the Quad framework.
Objective
- To enhance interoperability among participating navies in complex maritime operations.
- To ensure freedom of navigation, maritime domain awareness, and a rules-based Indo-Pacific order.
- To strengthen trust, coordination, and joint capability in naval operations.
Focus Areas in 2025
- Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW): Training to detect and neutralize underwater threats.
- Air Defence and Electronic Warfare: Enhancing coordinated air and electronic combat operations.
- Replenishment at Sea (RAS): Mid-sea refueling and logistic coordination drills.
- Complex Tactical Maneuvers: Improving joint response to maritime threats.
Participating Nations and Forces
- India: Indian Navy.
- United States: U.S. Navy’s 7th Fleet under Indo-Pacific Command.
- Japan: Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force (JMSDF).
- Australia: Royal Australian Navy (RAN).
Strategic Significance
- Strengthens the Quad’s vision of a Free, Open, Inclusive Indo-Pacific (FOIP).
- Reinforces maritime security cooperation and collective deterrence against coercive actions in the region.
- Supports India’s SAGAR vision (Security and Growth for All in the Region).
- Enhances India’s role as a net security provider in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
Nature of the Exercise
- It is a defence partnership exercise, not a military alliance. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Focuses on capacity building and operational synergy, not on forming a formal security bloc.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2024) Q. Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct? 1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh 2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune). 3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation. 4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise. Select the answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 |
8. With reference to World Diabetes Day (WDD), consider the following statements:
1. It is observed on 14th November every year to commemorate the birth anniversary of Sir Frederick Banting.
2. It was established jointly by the World Health Organization (WHO) and the International Diabetes Federation (IDF).
3. India ranks among the top three countries in global diabetes burden.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: World Diabetes Day 2025: Morning habits that can help you control blood sugar levels naturally
World Diabetes Day (WDD):
- Observed every year on 14th November.
- Established in 1991 by the International Diabetes Federation (IDF) and the World Health Organization (WHO). Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Officially recognized by the United Nations in 2006 through UN Resolution 61/225.
- The date marks the birthday of Sir Frederick Banting, co-discoverer of insulin. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Objective:
- To raise global awareness about prevention, diagnosis, and management of diabetes.
- To advocate universal access to diabetes care, including medicines, technology, and education.
Theme (2025):
- The 2025 theme continues the multi-year focus on “Access to Diabetes Care: Education to Protect Tomorrow.”
- Emphasizes the importance of empowering individuals and health workers with knowledge to manage diabetes effectively.
Global Initiatives
- WHO Global Diabetes Compact (2021): Targets improved prevention and access to care by 2030.
- Insulin@100 Campaign (2021): Marked 100 years of insulin discovery (1921–2021).
- Blue Circle Symbol: Represents unity in the global fight against diabetes.
India’s Diabetes Scenario
- India has over 100 million diabetics and 136 million pre-diabetics (ICMR–INDIAB Study, 2023).
- India ranks among the top three countries in global diabetes burden. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Rising incidence even among younger populations and rural areas.
Government Initiatives in India
- National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke (NPCDCS): Screening and management at primary healthcare level.
- Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centres (AB-HWCs): Offer free NCD screening including diabetes.
- Fit India Movement and Eat Right India Campaign: Promote preventive lifestyle changes.
- Digital initiatives: e-Sanjeevani and ABHA (Ayushman Bharat Health Account) for telemedicine and data integration.
9. Which of the following best describes the “sun-synchronous dawn-dusk orbit” used in Project Suncatcher?
(a) An orbit allowing satellites to remain over the same region of Earth continuously.
(b) An orbit enabling nearly constant sunlight exposure for solar energy generation.
(c) A geostationary orbit at ~36,000 km altitude for continuous Earth observation.
(d) A polar orbit used primarily for weather forecasting.
Answer: (b) An orbit enabling nearly constant sunlight exposure for solar energy generation.
Explanation:
In NEWS: Google’s Project Suncatcher aims to scale AI data centres in space
Project Suncatcher:
- Project Suncatcher is a moonshot initiative launched by Google in 2025 to establish AI data centres in space.
- The project aims to address the energy and cooling challenges faced by terrestrial data centres by shifting computing infrastructure to Low-Earth Orbit (LEO).
- Under the project, Google plans to deploy solar-powered satellites equipped with Tensor Processing Units (TPUs) — specialised chips designed for AI workloads.
- These satellites will operate in a sun-synchronous dawn–dusk orbit, enabling near-continuous solar energy generation. Hence option (b) is correct.
- The data centres in orbit will use free-space optical communication (laser links) to achieve high-speed data transfer between satellites and Earth.
- The project envisions tight satellite clusters, functioning as an interconnected orbital supercomputer for large-scale AI computations.
- Solar panels in orbit can generate 6–8 times more energy than ground-based ones due to constant sunlight and absence of atmospheric interference.
- Google plans to launch two prototype satellites by 2027 in collaboration with Planet Labs PBC to test hardware, networking, and radiation resistance.
- By moving AI compute infrastructure to space, Google aims to reduce land, water, and carbon footprint associated with Earth-based data centres.
Key technical challenges include:
- Heat dissipation in vacuum (no convection)
- Satellite formation control and precise alignment
- Radiation shielding for chips
- High launch and maintenance costs
- Risk of space debris and orbital congestion
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2011) Q. Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such as orbit when: 1. The orbit is geosynchronous. 2. The orbit is circular. 3. The orbit lies in the plane of the earth’s equator. 4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
10. Government of India encourages the cultivation of ‘sea buckthorn’. What is the importance of this plant?
1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification.
2. It is a rich source of bio-diesel.
3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.
4. Its timber is of great commercial value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 – Correct: Sea buckthorn has deep and extensive roots that help bind the soil, thereby preventing erosion and desertification. It is often planted in cold desert areas like Ladakh for land stabilization.
- Statement 2 – Incorrect: Although its berries yield oil, this oil is not used for bio-diesel; it is mainly used in medicinal and cosmetic products.
- Statement 3 – Correct: The berries of sea buckthorn are rich in vitamins (especially Vitamin C, E, and A) and antioxidants, making them highly nutritious. The plant is well adapted to cold, arid, high-altitude regions.
- Statement 4 – Incorrect: Sea buckthorn is a small shrub, not a timber-yielding tree; hence, its wood has little commercial value.