1. With reference to Operation Polo (1948), consider the following statements:
1. It was a military action by the Indian Army to integrate the princely state of Jammu & Kashmir into the Indian Union.
2. The operation lasted five days for annexation and was termed a “Police Action”
3. The operation was commanded by Major General J.N. Chaudhuri.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Why Operation Polo was launched to take over Hyderabad, 77 years ago
Operation Polo (1948):
1. After Independence, princely states had the option to join India, Pakistan, or remain independent.
2. Hyderabad State, ruled by Nizam Mir Osman Ali Khan, wanted to remain independent. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
3. Demographics: Majority Hindu population (~85%), minority Muslim ruling elite.
4. In November 1947, Hyderabad signed a Standstill Agreement with India to maintain status quo for one year.
5. The Nizam delayed integration talks and secretly sought support from Pakistan and foreign powers.
6. The Razakars, a paramilitary force under Qasim Razvi, carried out communal violence and atrocities, escalating tensions.
Causes of Operation
1. Strategic Concern: Hyderabad was in the heart of India — independence would fragment Indian territory.
2. Security Concern: Razakars’ activities created law and order issues and communal unrest.
3. Failed Negotiations: Peaceful talks failed; the Nizam refused to accede.
4. National Unity: Sardar Patel insisted Hyderabad’s accession was essential for India’s integrity.
The Operation (13–17 Sept 1948)
1. The Indian Army launched “Operation Polo” on 13 September 1948.
2. Major General J.N. Chaudhuri led the operation. Hence statement 3 is correct.
3. Hyderabad’s commander Syed Ahmed El Edroos surrendered on 17 September 1948.
4. The Nizam declared a ceasefire and accepted accession to India.
5. The operation lasted five days and was termed a “Police Action” to reduce international criticism. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Aftermath
1. Hyderabad became part of the Indian Union; later merged with Andhra to form Andhra Pradesh (1956).
2. Civilian Casualties: The Sunderlal Committee (1949) reported large-scale violence and deaths (estimates vary from 20,000 to over 40,000, mostly Muslims).
3. The Nizam was retained as Rajpramukh (Governor) until 1956 as a conciliatory gesture.
4. Communal tensions persisted but India’s unity was secured.
Significance
1. Political Integration: Marked the end of princely ambitions of independence.
2. Central Authority Asserted: Showed India’s readiness to use force for national integrity.
3. Strategic Security: Prevented an “independent enclave” in central India.
4. Legacy: Remains controversial due to civilian deaths and communal violence, but historically key for India’s unity.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2024) Q. Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called: (a) Operation Sankalp (b) Operation Maitri (c) Operation Sadbhavana (d) Operation Madad |
2. Consider the following statements:
1. The ten-degree channel separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands.
2. The Great Nicobar Island is close to the Six Degree Channel, a critical maritime route through which a major portion of global trade passes.
3. The only active volcano in India, Barren Island, is located in the Andaman Sea.
4. There are five Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
5. Andaman and Nicobar Islands have a unique combination of mangrove forests along the coast, tropical evergreen forests inland, and patches of moist deciduous forests.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
Answer: (d) All five
Explanation:
In NEWS: Great Nicobar project will displace tribal communities, threaten their survival
The Great Nicobar Connectivity Project:
1. The Great Nicobar Connectivity Project is a major infrastructure initiative undertaken by the Government of India to enhance strategic, economic, and ecological presence in the Great Nicobar Island, the southernmost part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
2. The project is part of India’s broader efforts to strengthen its position in the Indian Ocean Region and improve connectivity in remote areas.
Key Components of the Project
International Container Transshipment Terminal (ICTT)
1. A deep-sea port to be developed at Galathea Bay.
2. Aims to compete with ports like Singapore, Colombo, and Klang.
Greenfield Airport
1. Designed for both military and civilian use.
2. Will support wide-body aircraft operations.
3. Will improve connectivity to the island and support tourism.
Power Plant
1. A 450 MVA power plant to ensure electricity supply for the entire project and local areas.
Township Development
1. A new smart city-style township to support the expected influx of population and workforce.
2. Includes housing, public infrastructure, and commercial areas.
Strategic Importance
1. Geo-strategic Location: Close to the Six Degree Channel, a critical maritime route through which a major portion of global trade passes. The Six Degree Channel is a narrow maritime passage located in the Indian Ocean, between the Great Nicobar Island (India) and Indonesia’s Sumatra Island. Hence statement 2 is correct.
2. Boosting Maritime Security: Helps India monitor and secure sea lanes in the Indo-Pacific.
3. Regional Competition: Counters China’s presence in the Indian Ocean (especially via its String of Pearls strategy).
Andaman and Nicobar Islands:
1. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are a group of 572 islands, located in the Bay of Bengal.
2. They are divided into two main groups: the Andaman Islands (north) and the Nicobar Islands (south).
3. The capital of the Union Territory is Port Blair, located in South Andaman.
4. The ten-degree channel separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands. Hence statement 1 is correct.
5. These islands are of volcanic and sedimentary origin, and are part of a submarine mountain range extending from the Arakan Yoma range of Myanmar.
6. The only active volcano in India, Barren Island, is located in the Andaman Sea. Hence statement 3 is correct.
7. The islands are covered with dense tropical rainforests and are rich in biodiversity.
8. Andaman and Nicobar Islands have a unique combination of mangrove forests along the coast, tropical evergreen forests inland, and patches of moist deciduous forests. Hence statement 5 is correct.
9. The region falls in seismic Zone V, making it highly prone to earthquakes and tsunamis.
10. There are five Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The five PVTGs are the Great Andamanese, Onges, Jarwas, Sentinelese, and Shompens. Hence statement 4 is correct.
| PYQ REFERENCE: Q. Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’? (2014) (a) Andaman and Nicobar (b) Nicobar and Sumatra (c) Maldives and Lakshadweep (d) Sumatra and Java Q. Between India and east Asia, the navigationtime and distance can be greatly reduced by which of the following? (2011) 1. Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia. 2. Opening a new canal across the kra isthmus between the gulf of Siam and Andaman sea. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
3. With reference to Indian Polity, consider the following statements:
1. In police custody, the accused is kept up in the jail, whereas the accused is kept in the lock up of the police station in judicial custody.
2. In police custody the accused remains under the control of the Investigating Officer, whereas the accused remains under the custody of the Magistrate in judicial custody.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Woman held in Delhi BMW crash case sent to judicial custody
Police Custody:
Meaning: The accused is kept in the custody of the police for investigation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Authority: The accused remains under the control of the Investigating Officer but requires Magistrate’s permission. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Duration: Maximum 15 days (under Section 167(2) CrPC).
Purpose: To interrogate, recover evidence, prevent tampering.
Where kept: Lock-up of the police station.
Rights:
1. Must be produced before Magistrate within 24 hours of arrest (Article 22, CrPC 57).
2. Right to legal counsel and family intimation.
3. Cannot be tortured (SC guidelines in D.K. Basu vs State of West Bengal).
Judicial Custody:
Meaning: The accused is kept in prison (jail) under the orders of the Magistrate. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Authority: Accused remains under the custody of the Magistrate (judicial authority), not police. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Duration: Can extend up to 60 days (for offences punishable <10 years) or 90 days (for offences punishable >10 years / death / life imprisonment), after which default bail is available (Section 167(2) CrPC).
Purpose: To ensure fair trial, prevent influence or pressure during investigation.
Where kept: Central/ District Jail.
Rights:
1. Right to bail (depending on circumstances).
2. Legal aid and humane treatment.
3. Visits by family, lawyer, and magistrate oversight.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2021) Q. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail. 2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
4. Consider the following:
1. Strengthen access to quality health services for women and children.
2. Integrate the campaign with nutrition initiatives, menstrual hygiene, balanced diet awareness and anaemia prevention.
3. Early detection and management of diseases like non‑communicable diseases, tuberculosis, sickle cell disease, and cancers relevant to women.
4. Mobilise community engagement, awareness and behaviour change.
Which of the above are the objectives of the “Swasth Nari, Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan”?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
In NEWS: PM to launch campaign for women and child healthcare
“Swasth Nari, Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan”:
1. It is a national health & nutrition campaign launched by the Government of India focused on women’s, adolescent girls’ and children’s health.
2. The name means “Healthy Woman, Empowered Family Campaign”.
3. Scheduled to run from 17 September to 2 October 2025
4. It will involve 75,000 to 100,000 health camps across the country at various health facilities like Ayushman Arogya Mandirs, Community Health Centres, District Hospitals etc.
Objectives / Aims:
1. Strengthen access to quality health services for women and children, including preventive, promotive, and curative services.
2. Integrate the campaign with nutrition (Poshan) initiatives, menstrual hygiene, balanced diet awareness, anaemia prevention, etc.
3. Early detection and management of diseases like non‑communicable diseases (e.g. hypertension, obesity), tuberculosis, sickle cell disease, and cancers relevant to women (breast, cervical).
4. Mobilise community engagement, awareness, and behaviour change in matters of health, nutrition, lifestyle, and hygiene.
Hence option (d) is correct.
Key Features / Components:
1. Integration with Poshan Maah under the Ministry of Women & Child Development to boost nutrition awareness and practices.
2. Special camps and services for things like antenatal care, immunisation, nutrition counselling, menstrual hygiene, lifestyle/mental health awareness.
3. Emphasis on participation by various stakeholders: Anganwadi workers, ASHA workers, ANMs, Self‑Help Groups, Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs), youth volunteers, private hospitals etc.
4. The Ministry of Ayush is also participating to provide holistic health practices including wellness, yoga, herbal/alternative medicine components.
Significance / Expected Outcomes:
1. Reduce health & nutrition gaps among women and children.
2. Improve early detection of diseases, better maternal and child health outcomes.
3. Empower women health‑wise, leading to stronger families and healthier communities.
4. Help in achieving larger health goals/targets (such as those under SDGs) with synergistic convergence.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2016) Q. ‘Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan’ is a national campaign to (a) rehabilitate the homeless and destitute persons and provide them with suitable sources of livelihood (b) release the sex workers from their practice and provide them with alternative sources of livelihood (c) eradicate the practice of manual scavenging and rehabilitate the manual scavengers (d) release the bonded labourers from their bondage and rehabilitate them |
5. The World Bank–Milken Institute Program primarily focuses on
(a) Poverty alleviation through social safety nets.
(b) Development of domestic capital markets in emerging economies.
(c) Sustainable agriculture and climate financing.
(d) Trade liberalisation and tariff reforms.
Answer: (b) Development of domestic capital markets in emerging economies.
Explanation:
In NEWS: EPFO Officer Selected for Prestigious World Bank – Milken Institute Program
World Bank – Milken Institute Program
1. Launched in 2016 as a joint initiative of the World Bank Group and the Milken Institute (a US-based non-profit think tank).
2. Focus: Capital market development in emerging and developing economies. Hence option (b) is correct.
Objectives
1. To strengthen financial systems in developing countries.
2. To help governments design and implement domestic capital market reforms.
3. To mobilize long-term finance for infrastructure, SMEs, and social sectors.
4. To build local capacity through training programs and technical assistance.
Key Features
Executive Education Program:
1. Trains senior policymakers, regulators, and market participants.
2. Delivered in Washington D.C. and Los Angeles.
Focus Areas:
1. Corporate bond markets.
2. Pension funds and insurance sector development.
3. SME financing and innovation.
4. Market regulations and governance.
Knowledge Exchange:
Sharing best practices between advanced and developing economies.
Goal:
Create resilient, inclusive, and diversified financial markets.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2016) Q. India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following has declared that ranking? (a) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) (b) World Economic Forum (c) World Bank (d) World Trade Organization (WTO) |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2166873
6. Which one of the following is the correct description of the Frontier 50 Initiative?
(a) A skill development program launched by the Ministry of Education for training 50,000 youth in AI and robotics.
(b) A nationwide skilling initiative launched by the Ministry of Education aimed at training 50,000 students from rural areas in frontier technologies such as artificial intelligence, robotics, and blockchain to boost employment in the tech sector.
(c) An initiative to accelerate the adoption of frontier technologies in 50 Aspirational Districts or Blocks, leveraging proven use cases from across India to saturate service delivery in key development areas.
(d) A recognition scheme under the Startup India framework that awards and funds 50 emerging startups working on next-generation technologies including quantum computing, AI, and space tech, with the objective of enhancing India’s global competitiveness in deep tech innovation.
Answer: (c) An initiative to accelerate the adoption of frontier technologies in 50 Aspirational Districts or Blocks, leveraging proven use cases from across India to saturate service delivery in key development areas.
Explanation:
In NEWS: Initiatives launched under Frontier Tech Hub towards Accelerating India’s Transformation to Viksit Bharat by 2047
Frontier 50 Initiative:
1. NITI Aayog under its Frontier Tech Hub, on 15 September 2025, as part of the “AI for Viksit Bharat” roadmap.
2. The initiative aims to accelerate the adoption of frontier technologies in 50 Aspirational Districts or Blocks, leveraging proven use cases from across India to saturate service delivery in key development areas. Hence option (c) is correct.
Key Features:
1. Selection of 50 Aspirational Districts/Blocks.
2. NITI Aayog will identify and support 50 districts or blocks from the Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP) or Aspirational Blocks Programme (ABP).
3. Use Case Deployment.
4. Districts will pick real-world tech use cases from the Frontier Tech Repository (which showcases 200+ impact stories).
5. These include innovations in Agriculture, Healthcare, Education, and National Security.
6. Frontier Technologies
7. Focus on AI, machine learning, digital public infrastructure (DPI), IoT, and other emerging technologies that have demonstrated impact.
Goal: Saturation of Services
Aim to accelerate 100% coverage of services under themes like health, nutrition, education, livelihoods, etc., using technology as a multiplier.
NITI Frontier Tech Impact Awards:
1. Recognizes 3 top-performing states that have shown excellence in tech-driven governance and service delivery.
2. Supports them in scaling and replicating successful models.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2166867
7. With reference to DNA testing in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Indian laws allow collection of biological samples only from the accused, not from the victim.
2. DNA test results are admissible in Indian courts under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
3. Providing DNA samples violates Article 20(3) of the Constitution as it amounts to self-incrimination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: What do Supreme Court guidelines say on DNA?
Legal Framework for DNA Testing in India:
India does not yet have a standalone law regulating DNA testing, though several laws mention its use:
1. Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) – Sections 53, 53A, 164A: Allows collection of biological samples from accused or victim (under judicial supervision). Requires medical examination with informed consent, especially in rape cases. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
2. Indian Evidence Act, 1872: DNA test results can be admissible as evidence, provided proper chain of custody and procedure is followed. Hence statement 2 is correct.
3. Human DNA Profiling Bill (Proposed): First introduced in 2007, revised in 2015 & 2019. Seeks to create a DNA database, regulate collection, storage, and use. Has not been passed due to concerns over privacy and misuse.
4. Judicial Guidelines (Supreme Court & High Courts): Courts have issued guidelines to regulate DNA collection to protect individual rights and ensure fairness.
Supreme Court Guidelines on DNA Testing:
1. DNA testing is primarily used for forensic investigations, paternity disputes, and legal identification.
2. The procedure has high scientific accuracy but must be backed by strict legal and procedural safeguards.
3. DNA testing must be voluntary; informed consent is required from the individual.
4. If the individual is a minor or mentally incapacitated, consent must be obtained from a legal guardian.
5. Courts should order DNA tests only when absolutely necessary and relevant to the case.
6. Judicial orders must specify whose sample is needed, the purpose, and the procedure to be followed.
7. A strict chain of custody must be maintained for collecting, storing, and analyzing DNA samples to avoid contamination.
8. Only accredited laboratories should conduct the testing, following standard operating procedures.
9. Privacy and security of biological samples and DNA data must be ensured at all stages.
10. The issue of self-incrimination is debated, but courts generally hold that providing bodily samples does not violate Article 20(3) of the Constitution. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
11. Courts may direct the state to bear the cost of DNA tests if the parties involved cannot afford it.
12. DNA testing must be conducted within a reasonable timeframe to avoid delays in justice.
13. DNA contains sensitive personal information, and its collection and use must comply with privacy norms.
14. Misuse of DNA data, such as unauthorized sharing or use for discrimination, is strictly prohibited.
15. DNA testing should be ordered only in serious and relevant cases, such as rape, murder, or disputed parentage.
16. Mass or random collection of DNA samples without a specific legal order is not permissible.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2023) Q. ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following? (a) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna (b) Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues (c) Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants (d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population |
8. With reference to the Gyan Bharatam Mission, consider the following statements:
1. It aims to digitize, preserve and disseminate India’s manuscript heritage.
2. The Mission has been allocated more than ₹400 crore for the period 2024-31.
3. It is being implemented by the Ministry of Education.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: PM Modi Launches Gyan Bharatam Portal, Calls Mission a Voice of India’s Cultural and Knowledge Legacy
Gyan Bharatam Portal / Mission:
1. Launched in 2025 by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
2. Objective: Preserve, digitise, document, and disseminate India’s manuscript heritage. Hence statement 1 is correct.
3. Mission period: 2024–31.
4. Total outlay: ₹482.85 crore. Hence statement 2 is correct.
5. Aims to make manuscripts a “living legacy” through translation, research, and public access.
6. Uses digital and AI-driven tools for preservation, decipherment, and metadata creation.
7. The Gyan Bharatam Portal acts as the main digital platform for manuscript access.
Over 44.07 lakh manuscripts are already documented in the Kriti Sampada digital repository.
8. First International Conference on Gyan Bharatam held at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi (Sept 2025).
9. Significance: Protects India’s vast manuscript wealth, supports research, education, cultural identity, and soft power diplomacy.
9. Consider the following statements with respect to INS Nistar:
I. INS Nistar is the first indigenously designed and built Diving Support Vessel in India.
II. The vessel has the capacity for submarine rescue operations up to 650 meters depth.
III. Recently, the Vessel participated in Pacific Reach 2025, a biennial multinational submarine rescue exercise hosted by Singapore.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
Explanation:
In NEWS: INS Nistar makes maiden port call at Singapore
INS Nistar:
1. INS Nistar, India’s new Diving Support Vessel (DSV), along with Submarine Rescue Unit (East), made its maiden port call at Changi Naval Base, Singapore on 14 September 2025 to participate in Exercise Pacific Reach 2025. Hence statements I and III are correct.
2. INS Nistar was commissioned on 18 July 2025 and is the first indigenously designed and built DSV in India, with more than 80% indigenous content.
3. The vessel will function as the MoShip (“Mother Ship”) for Deep Submergence Rescue Vehicles (DSRVs), enabling rescue operations in distress situations for submarines.
4. INS Nistar is under the command of the Eastern Fleet of the Indian Navy.
Technical / Operational Capabilities
1. Equipped with Side Scan Sonar, ROVs (work & observation class), and deep-sea diving systems.
2. Has the capacity for submarine rescue operations up to 650 meters depth (via the DSRVs). Hence statement II is correct.
3. Endurance over 60 days, capability for helicopter operations, and facilities such as decompression chambers etc.
Exercise Pacific Reach 2025:
Pacific Reach 2025 is a biennial multinational submarine rescue exercise hosted by Singapore, involving more than 40 nations as active participants or observers.
The exercise has two phases:
1. Harbour phase: includes Subject Matter Expert Exchanges (SMEE), medical symposium, cross-deck visits, discussions on submarine rescue systems.
2. Sea phase: sees INS Nistar and Submarine Rescue Unit East engaging in intervention and rescue operations in the South China Sea.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2016) Q. Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? (a) Amphibious warfare ship (b) Nuclear-powered submarine (c) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel (d) Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier |
10. The Organisms “Cicada, Froghopper and Pond Skater” are:
(a) Birds
(b) Fish
(c) Insects
(d) Reptiles
Answer: (c) Insects
Explanation:
CICADA
FROGHOPPER
POND SKATER
