1.With reference to Overseas Citizenship of India, Consider the following statements:
1. An OCI card holder is not entitled to vote
2. An OCI card holder, essentially a foreign passport holder, gets a multiple entry, multi-purpose life-long visa for visiting India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
In News: This word means: OCI (Overseas Citizen of India)
Explanation:
- Introduced in August 2005, the OCI scheme provides for registration of all Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) who were citizens of India on January 26, 1950, or thereafter, or were eligible to become citizens of India on the said date.
- An OCI card holder — essentially a foreign passport holder — gets a multiple entry, multi-purpose life-long visa for visiting India, and is exempt from registration with local police authority for any length of stay in the country.
- On March 4, 2021, the Ministry of Home Affairs issued a gazette notification amending the rules regarding OCI card holders.
- These remain in place today.
- An applicant is not eligible to get an OCI card if his/her parents or grandparents have ever been a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh.
- However, the spouse of foreign origin of a citizen of India or spouse of foreign origin of an OCI, whose marriage has been registered and subsisted for not less than two years, can apply for an OCI card.
- Foreign military personnel either in service or retired are also not entitled for grant of OCI.
- An OCI card holder is not entitled to vote; to be a member of a Legislative Assembly or of a Legislative Council or of Parliament; to hold Indian constitutional posts such as that of the President, Vice President, Judge of the Supreme Court or High Court. Also, she cannot normally hold employment in the government.Hence option(c) is correct.
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/this-word-means-oci-overseas-citizen-of-india-10016103/
2. Nagarahole Tiger Reserve recently seen in news situated in the state of
(a) Karnataka
(b) Odisha
(c) Kerala
(d) Maharashtra
Answer: (a) Karnataka
In News: Nagarahole: Jenu Kuruba Adivasis to hold Gram Sabha on May 20
Explanation:
- The 52 Jenu Kuruba Adivasi families, who returned to their village Karadikallu Attur Kolli on May 5, 2025, to reclaim their ancestral villages and forest rights, will hold a Gram Sabha on May 20.
- In a joint statement made by Nagarahole Adivasi Jammapale Hakku Sthapana Samiti, Nagarahole, Karnataka; National Adivasi Alliance, India; Community Network Against Protected Areas, India; and People’s Union for Civil Liberties, Mysuru Chapter, the tribespeople said the assertion of their rights was a direct result of the Nagarahole Tiger Reserve authorities’ repeated interference, lobbying and hijacking of the due process of law in recognising individual forest rights (IFR), community forest rights (CFR) and community forest resource rights (CFRR).Hence option(a) is correct.
- According to Section 9 of the FRA, the Gram Sabha as a pubic authority is vested with powers to determine, verify and recognise or reject any claims, the statement said.
- The Gram Sabha on May 20 aims to discuss the violations of the FRA. The members also aim to move further on establishing procedures regarding recognition of CFR and CFRR claims.
Source:
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/forests/nagarahole-jenu-kuruba-adivasis-to-hold-gram-sabha-on-may-20
3.Consider the following:
1. Convention on Biological Diversity
2. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
3. UN Convention to Combat Desertification
4. Minamata Convention on Mercury
How many of the above are financial mechanisms under the Global Environment facility?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (d) All four
In News: Biodiversity funds not reaching indigenous people, women who protect nature: Report
Explanation:
- Money meant to protect forests, oceans and wildlife is not reaching the people who live closest to nature, a new study has found.
- The International Institute for Environment and Development (IIED), a United Kingdom-based policy research organisation, along with partners in five countries, conducted a detailed analysis of biodiversity funding from the Global Environment Facility (GEF).
- GEF is one of the largest international funds for nature and climate action. It is playing a key role in delivering on the $200 billion annual biodiversity finance goal under Target 19 of Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF).
- The GEF provides funding to assist developing countries in meeting the objectives of international environmental conventions.
- The GEF serves as a “financial mechanism” to six conventions: Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants, UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), Minamata Convention on Mercury, and the Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement. Hence option(d) is correct.
Source:
4. The Global Report on Food Crises Report released by
(a) The Global Network Against Food Crisis
(b) United Nation Development program
(c) Food and Agriculture organisation
(d) World Economic Forum
Answer: (a)The Global Network Against Food Crisis
In News: Nearly 300 million people faced acute hunger in 2024: Report
Explanation:
- In 2024, more than 295 million people across 53 countries and territories experienced acute levels of hunger, according to the Global Report on Food Crises (GRFC).
- This was 13.7 million more people compared to 2023.
- Of the total population assessed in the report, around 23 per cent faced acute food insecurity. The year 2024 was the fifth consecutive year in which this figure has remained above 20 per cent and overall the sixth consecutive year of rising acute food insecurity and child malnutrition in some of the world’s most vulnerable regions.
- Conflict, economic shocks, climate extremes, and forced displacement were the key drivers of food insecurity and malnutrition around the world, with catastrophic impacts on many already fragile regions, according to the report.
- The document is published annually by The Global Network Against Food Crisis (GNAFC) with analysis from the Food Security Information Network.Hence option(a) is correct.
Source:
5. Kolahoi Glacier, the main source of the Lidder river is tributary of which of the following rivers?
(a) Indus
(b) Chenab
(c) Jhelum
(d) Sutlej
Answer: (c) Jhelum
In News: When Nehru visited Pahalgam: Story of first PM’s last vacation
Explanation:
- Nehru visited the Aru valley, about 12 km from Pahalgam. He also visited the Kolahoi Glacier, the main source of the Lidder river, the tributary of the Jhelum that flows through Pahalgam.
- Kolahoi Glacier sits, about 35 kilometres upstream from Pahalgam, at the head of the West Lidder Valley in Kashmir. The glaciated section of this valley
- is about 5 km in length.Hence option(c) is correct.
- Known among the locals as ‘Goddess of Light’, the glacier boosts the rural economy and tourism as the Lidder River feeds the mighty stream of river Jhelum.
- The water in the Jhelum flows from the melting of snow received during the winter as well as the melting of glaciers in the alpine region.
- Owing to Kolahoi’s meltwater, the Kashmir Valley is significantly fertile with the cultivation of cereal crops, dry fruits, saffron, and apples
Source:
6. With reference to the Deep Ocean, consider the following statements:
1. The Deep Ocean begins at a depth where sunlight completely ceases to penetrate.
2. The average temperature in the Deep Ocean is about 4°C.
3. The Mesopelagic Zone contains a significant proportion of the world’s fish biomass.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
In News: India’s deep-sea adventure: Samudrayaan’s Matsya ready for 6,000-metre dive in push to join elite club
- 97% of recorded deep-sea dives had been performed by only five countries: the U.S., Japan, New Zealand, France, and Germany.
- Observation Means: Visual Imaging from manned submersibles, Remotely Operated Vehicles (ROVs), Autonomous Underwater Vehicles (AUVs), Tow Cameras tethered to Ships etc
Deep Ocean
- Definition: Refers to the sea and seabed below approximately 200 meters in depth, where light rapidly diminishes. This marks the start of the Twilight Zone (Mesopelagic Zone: 200m–1000m).
Conditions
- Temperature: Cold, with an average of 4°C.
- Pressure: Extremely high—ranging from 40 to over 110 times Earth’s atmospheric pressure.
Biodiversity
- It contains around 90% of the world’s fish by weight.
The Mesopelagic Zone is rich in life, especially:
- Squid
- Krill
- Jellyfish
- Fish
Source:
7.Consider the following statements:
The Samudrayaan Mission is being developed by National Institute of Ocean Technology
1. to explore marine resources at a depth of 6,000 metres using the indigenously developed submersible ‘Matsya’.
2. is part of the manned Deep Ocean Mission.
3. India’s research vessel Sagar Nidhi will be used to deploy and recover the MATSYA 6000.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)1,2 and 3
Explanation:
In News: India’s deep-sea adventure: Samudrayaan’s Matsya ready for 6,000-metre dive in push to join elite club
- India is set to launch its first manned deep-ocean mission, ‘Samudrayaan’, by 2026, aiming to explore marine resources at a depth of 6,000 metres using the indigenously developed submersible ‘Matsya’. Hence statement 1 is correct.
About Samudrayaan Mission
- The Samudrayaan Mission is a pioneering Indian initiative aimed at manned deep-sea exploration. It is a key component of India’s broader Deep Ocean Mission, which focuses on exploring and sustainably utilizing ocean resources.
Key Features of Samudrayaan Mission
Part of the Deep Ocean Mission:
- The Deep Ocean Mission is a flagship programme of India focused on deep-sea mining, ocean climate studies, and biodiversity assessments. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Samudrayaan is the manned sub-project under this umbrella—India’s first attempt to send humans into deep-sea environments.
MATSYA 6000 – The Submersible Vehicle:
- Named MATSYA 6000, the vehicle is indigenously developed, representing a major step in India’s technological self-reliance. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- It is classified as a 4th generation manned submersible, indicating it includes advanced features and safety mechanisms for extreme underwater conditions.
- Capacity: Can carry three crew members.
- Depth Capability: Can descend up to 6,000 meters (~6 km) below sea level, reaching the abyssal zone of the ocean.
Developing Agency:
- Developed by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), located in Chennai, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
- NIOT is India’s premier ocean technology research organization.
Endurance and Safety:
- Operational endurance: 12 hours – This is the normal mission duration where crew and systems function at full capacity.
- Emergency endurance: 96 hours – If any issues arise, life-support systems can keep the crew alive for up to 4 days, allowing for rescue operations.
Deployment and Recovery:
- The submersible will be launched and recovered using Sagar Nidhi, an Indian research vessel.
- Sagar Nidhi is capable of deep-sea operations and is equipped with the necessary systems to support MATSYA 6000 missions.
Source:
8.The ‘Global EV Outlook 2025’ report, often seen in the news, is released by which of the following organisations?
(a) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
(b) International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA)
(c) International Energy Agency (IEA)
(d) World Economic Forum (WEF)
Answer: (c) International Energy Agency (IEA)
Explanation:
In News: Over 1 in 4 cars sold this year to be electric: IEA report
- India drives most growth in the global electric three-wheeler market
- Global sales of electric cars, which exceeded 17 million in 2024, are on track to surpass 20 million in 2025, according to the Global EV Outlook 2025, released by the International Energy Agency (IEA) on May 14, 2025. Hence option (c ) is correct.
- Global EV Outlook 2025 further estimates that two- and three-wheelers remained the most electrified road transport segment in 2024, with more than 9 percent of the global fleet now electric.
- China, India and Southeast Asia, where two- and three-wheelers serve as the primary mode of private passenger transport, remain the world’s largest two- and three-wheelers markets, accounting for 80 per cent of 2024 global sales. India drives most growth in the global electric three-wheeler market.
Source:
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/energy/over-1-in-4-cars-sold-this-year-to-be-electric-iea-report
9.With reference to Land Ports in India, consider the following statements:
1. A land port is an area located on India’s international borders equipped to handle both passenger and cargo movement.
2. The Land Ports Authority of India (LPAI) is a statutory body under the Ministry of External Affairs.
3. As of 2025, India has fifteen operational land ports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
In News: India curbs Bangladeshi exports via land ports
- Ready-made garments from Bangladesh will be allowed to enter India only through the ports of Kolkata and Mumbai where the cargo shipments will be subjected to ‘mandated inspections’
About Land Ports in India
- A Land Port is a designated area located on India’s international land borders, equipped with infrastructure for the clearance and movement of passengers and cargo. These ports facilitate cross-border trade and travel.
As of 2025, India has 15 operational Land Ports, located across borders with:
- Bangladesh
- Nepal
- Bhutan
- Pakistan
- Myanmar
These include major ICPs such as:
- Attari (Punjab) – India–Pakistan border
- Petrapole (West Bengal) – India–Bangladesh border
- Raxaul (Bihar) – India–Nepal border
- Moreh (Manipur) – India–Myanmar border
Source:
10.Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’? (2017)
1.To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.
3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice.
4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only