PRELIMS CURRENT AFFAIRS – 22/07/24

01. With reference to The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes ,consider the following statements:

1. It was established by amending Article 338 and inserting a new Article 338A in the Constitution through the Constitution 69th Amendment Act, 2003.
2. The term of office of Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and each member is three years from the date of assumption of charge
3. The Function of Commission is to to participate and Advise in the Planning Process relating to Socio-economic development of STs, and to Evaluate the progress of their development under the Union and any State.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Answer:  (b) Only two

In News:Shri Shri Jatothu Hussain lauds various measures being taken at RINL towards the welfare of SC&ST Employees

Explanation:

• In a meeting held at Nagarjuna, centre for HRD at Visakhapatnam steel plant Shri Jatothu Hussain, Member, National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, New Delhi  interacted with Sri Atul Bhatt, CMD, RINL, Directors, CGMs and other senior officials of RINL
• Shri Jatothu Hussain, Member National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, appreciated the sustained efforts of the RINL management in working towards the welfare of SC&ST employees of RINL.
• The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) was established by amending Article 338 and inserting a new Article 338A in the Constitution through the Constitution (89th Amendment) Act, 2003.Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 
• By this amendment, the erstwhile National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was replaced by two separate Commissions namely- (i) the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC), and (ii) the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) w.e.f. 19 February, 2004. 
• Detailed background information about the historical evolution of the National Commission has been given in Chapter-1 of the first Report of the Commission for the year 2004-05 and 2005-06.
• The term of office of Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and each member is three years from the date of assumption of charge.Hence statement 2 is correct.  
• The Chairperson has been given the rank of Union Cabinet Minister, and the Vice-Chairperson that of a Minister of State and other Members have the rank of a Secretary to the Government of India.
• To investigate & Monitor matters relating to Safeguards provided for STs under the Constitution or under other laws or under Govt. Order, to evaluate the working of such Safeguards.
• To inquire into specific complaints relating to Rights & Safeguards of STs;
• To participate and Advise in the Planning Process relating to Socio-economic development of STs, and to Evaluate the progress of their development under the Union and any State.Hence statement 3 is correct. 

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2034737

https://ncst.nic.in/content/functions-commission

02. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 361 of the Constitution shields the President and Governor from criminal prosecution, and bars any judicial scrutiny of their actions.
2. The provision states no criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continue can take place while the President, or the Governor, holds office

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (d)Neither 1 nor 2

In News:What is Governor’s immunity under Article 361, set to be reviewed by the Supreme Court?

Explanation:

• The Supreme Court on July 19 agreed to hear a plea seeking to redefine the contours of the constitutional immunity enjoyed by the Governor of a state.
• Article 361 of the Constitution shields the President and Governor from criminal prosecution, and bars any judicial scrutiny of their actions.Hence statement 1 is correct.  
• Given that the case could have significant ramifications on the role of the constitutional head of a state, the court also asked Attorney General for India R Venkataramani to weigh in.
• Article 361 states that the President, or the Governor of a state, “shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties”, unless it is by Parliament for impeachment from office.
• The provision further says “no criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued”; “no process for the arrest or imprisonment” can take place while the President, or the Governor, holds office.Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• The interpretation of these phrases — in Article 361(2) and 361(3) — “criminal proceedings” and “process for the arrest or imprisonment” is what is now before the SC. 
• The court will consider whether that process covers a registration of FIR, initiation of a preliminary inquiry, or a magistrate taking cognisance of an offence, which is the technical start of a criminal case.
• In the West Bengal case, the petitioner has argued that if none of the aforementioned actions can be taken against Governor Bose till he demits office, it could lead to a violation of rights, and impact the evidence in this case.
• In its order, the SC said “the interpretation of clause (2) [of Article 361] arises for determination, more particularly, when criminal proceedings would be construed to have been ‘instituted’.”

Source:

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/what-is-governors-immunity-under-article-361-set-to-be-reviewed-by-supreme-court-9467667/

03. With reference toU-WIN an online vaccine management portal for childhood vaccination,consider the following statements:

1. Children, up to the age of six years, and pregnant mothers are registered on U-WIN using government ID like Aadhaar, and their mobile phone numbers
2. U-WIN registers all births, the three vaccines against polio, hepatitis B, and tuberculosis administered at birth, a child’s birth weight, and any physical deformities observed at birth.
3. U-WIN itself can be used to locate the nearest vaccination centre, and book an available slot.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Answer: (c)All three

In News:How children win with U-WIN, govt’s new online vaccine portal

Explanation:

• Children, up to the age of six years, and pregnant mothers are registered on U-WIN using government ID like Aadhaar, and their mobile phone numbers. Upon registration, records of all 25 shots given to a child — and the two given to pregnant mothers — can be added.Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• For this, the platform generates a checkered vaccination certificate that colour codes all vaccines. 
• After each shot is administered (and recorded on U-WIN), its date gets added to the card, which also shows the due date for the next set of vaccines. 
• The platform also sends SMS reminders to parents before their children are due for the next dose.
• The digital vaccine certificate — which can be downloaded by parents using their registered mobile numbers — does away with the need to maintain the physical vaccination booklet, and allows one to get vaccinated anywhere in the country. 
• U-WIN itself can be used to locate the nearest vaccination centre, and book an available slot.Hence statement 3 is correct. 
• As for health workers, the platform can automatically generate a due-list of children in their respective areas. Once the database matures, U-WIN will allow the government to study micro-trends across areas.
• U-WIN also registers all births, the three vaccines against polio, hepatitis B, and tuberculosis administered at birth, a child’s birth weight, and any physical deformities observed at birth.Hence statement 2 is correct. 
•  These data-points can be utilised by other government programmes as well — the idea is to eventually connect all digital records through ABHA (Ayushman Bharat Health Account) ID.
• U-WIN will also be linked to the government’s existing eVIN platform for inventory management. eVIN tracks all vaccine vials, from large central stores to each vaccination site in the country. It keeps track of the number of doses used, the number of doses that go to waste, and the number of open vials that are submitted back by the sites, and is used by sites to raise demands for vaccines.
• eVIN also keeps track of, in real-time, the temperature and humidity that a vial has been subjected to using a sensor attached to each freezer.

Source:

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/how-children-win-with-u-win-govts-new-online-vaccine-portal-9467698/

04.With reference to the Economic Survey,consider the following statements:

Statement -I:It is prepared by the Economic Division of the Department of Revenue  Affairs  in the Union Finance Ministry, under the guidance of the Chief Economic Adviser.

Statement -II: The first Economic Survey was presented for 1950-51 and until 1964, it was presented along with the Budget

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement – I and Statement – II are correct and Statement – II is the correct explanation for Statement – I
2. Both Statement – I and Statement – II are correct and Statement – II is not the correct explanation for Statement – I
3. Statement – I is correct but Statement – II is incorrect
4. Statement – I is incorrect but Statement – II is correct

Answer:(d)Statement – I is incorrect but Statement – II is correct

In News:Economic Survey 2023-24 to be released today: Why it matters, what to expect

Explanation:

• As the name suggests, the Economic Survey is a detailed report of the state of the national economy in the financial year that is coming to a close.
•  It is prepared by the Economic Division of the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) in the Union Finance Ministry, under the guidance of the Chief Economic Adviser.Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 
•  Once prepared, the Survey is approved by the Finance Minister.
• The first Economic Survey was presented for 1950-51 and until 1964, it was presented along with the Budget.Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• Similarly, for the longest time, the survey was presented in just one volume, with specific chapters dedicated to different key sectors of the economy such as services, agriculture, and manufacturing, as well as key policy areas like fiscal developments, state of employment and inflation etc. This volume carries a detailed statistical abstract as well.
• However, between 2010-11 and 2020-21, the survey was presented in two volumes. The additional volume carried the intellectual imprint of the CEA and often dealt with some of the major issues and debates facing the economy.
• From 2022-23, the survey reverted to a single volume format, presumably because it was prepared and presented while there was a change in guard in the CEA’s office and the current CEA – V Anantha Nageswaran – took charge when the survey was released.
• The Indian economy has struggled to grow at a fast pace since 2017-18. The years immediately after the Covid-19 pandemic may have registered fast growth rates but that was just a statistical illusion. Many outside economists have argued that India’s potential growth has fallen from 8% to 6%.
• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) in July this year revised India’s growth forecast for 2024-25 from 6.8% to 7%, an increase due to an improvement in private consumption especially in rural India, in spite of challenging global and domestic economic dynamics. The IMF’s World Economic Outlook report has also projected 6.5% GDP growth for India in 2025-26.

Source:

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/national-flag-day-history-tricolour-nehru-9467338/

05.With reference to The Ken-Betwa Link Project,consider the following statements:

1. It is the first project under the National Perspective Plan for interlinking of rivers.
2. Under this project,water from the Ken river will be transferred to the Betwa river and  both these rivers are tributaries of river Ganga.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (a)1 only

In News:6th Meeting of Steering Committee of Ken-Betwa Link Project held in New Delhi today

Explanation:

• The 6th meeting of the Steering Committee of Ken-Betwa Link Project Authority was held on 19.07.2024 in New Delhi. 
• The meeting was chaired by Ms. Debashree Mukherjee, Secretary (D/o Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation, Ministry of Jal Shakti).
• The Ken-Betwa Link Project is the first project under the National Perspective Plan for interlinking of rivers.Hence statement 1 is correct
• Under this project, water from the Ken river will be transferred to the Betwa river. Both these rivers are tributaries of river Yamuna.Hence statement 2 is incorrect
• The Ken-Betwa Link Project has two phases. Under Phase-I, one of the components — Daudhan dam complex and its appurtenances like Low Level Tunnel, High Level Tunnel, Ken-Betwa link canal and Power houses — will be completed. 
• While in the Phase-II, three components — Lower Orr dam, Bina complex project and Kotha barrage — will be constructed.
• According to the Union Jal Shakti Ministry, the project is expected to provide annual irrigation of 10.62 lakh hectares, drinking water supply to about 62 lakh people and also generate 103 MW of hydropower.
• The Ken-Betwa Link Project lies in Bundelkhand, a drought-prone region, which spreads across 13 districts of Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
• According to the Jal Shakti Ministry, the project will be of immense benefit to the water-starved region of Bundelkhand, especially in the districts of Panna, Tikamgarh, Chhatarpur, Sagar, Damoh, Datia, Vidisha, Shivpuri and Raisen of Madhya Pradesh and Banda, Mahoba, Jhansi and Lalitpur of Uttar Pradesh.

Source:

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-what-is-the-ken-betwa-link-project-7239885/

06.With reference to National Bamboo Mission,consider the following statements:

1. The Restructured National Bamboo Mission is a centrally sponsored scheme .
2. It is being implemented through the state nodal department which is nominated by the State governments concerned.
3. The selection of beneficiaries and delivery of assistance are being carried out by the State Bamboo Mission stationed at the State nodal department for implementing the National Bamboo Mission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2  and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1,2,3

Answer:  (d)1,2,3

In News:Bamboo cultivation offers a unique opportunity to improve livelihoods while contributing to environmental conservation: Shri Charanjit Singh

Explanation:

• Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM), in partnership with the United States Agency for International Development (USAID) and lndustree Foundation, held a ‘National Symposium on Bamboo’ yesterday to promote sustainable rural livelihoods, women’s empowerment and climate resilience through bamboo farming.
• Restructured National Bamboo Mission approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) on 25-04-2018.
•  The Mission envisages promoting holistic growth of bamboo sector by adopting area-based,regionally differentiated strategy and to increase the area under bamboo cultivation and marketing.
•  Under the Mission, steps have been taken to increase the availability of quality planting material by supporting the setting up of new nurseries and strengthening of existing ones. 
• To address forward integration, the Mission is taking steps to strengthen marketing of eing bamboo products,especially those of handicraft items.
• The Restructured National Bamboo Mission is a centrally sponsored scheme (CSS).Hence statement 1 is correct 
• It is being implemented through the state nodal department which is nominated by the State/UT governments concerned.Hence statement 2 is correct 
• The selection of beneficiaries and delivery of assistance are being carried out by the State Bamboo Mission/State Bamboo Development agency stationed at the State/UT nodal department for implimenting the National Bamboo Mission.Hence statement 3 is correct

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2034324

https://nbm.da.gov.in/

07. Consider the following statements with reference to the Parliamentary system of government.

1. India follows the doctrine of parliamentary sovereignty. 
2. The feature of ZERO HOUR is sui generis to the Indian parliament 
3. President of india is the nominal head of the state with de-facto powers

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Answer:  (d) 2 and 3 only

In News: During the previous NDA government, the circumstances in which the three contentious farm laws were repealed in November 2021 were of critical significance for the parliamentary system of governance.

Explanation 

• As we know, a parliamentary system of governance is a democratic form of government in which the executive branch derives its legitimacy from and is accountable to the legislature or parliament. 
• As a result, it is also known as a responsible government. In this system, the Prime Minister is usually the head of government and the leader of the party or coalition with the majority of seats in Parliament.
• Contrastingly, in a presidential system, the head of state – the President – is elected separately and holds independent executive power. 

Parliamentary system in India and Britain

• After the end of colonial rule, India adopted a parliamentary system of government from Britain.
• So, are there any similarities or differences between India and the British Parliamentary systems?

Similarities: 

• Both countries have a head of state who performs a ceremonial role: the Monarch in the UK and the President in India. However, the Indian President is more powerful than the British ceremonial head.Hence statement 2 is correct
• Each has a bicameral parliament consisting of an upper house (the House of Lords in the UK and the Rajya Sabha in India) and a lower house (the House of Commons in the UK and the Lok Sabha in India). 
• The principle of collective responsibility ensures that the cabinet, headed by the Prime Minister, is accountable to the parliament and must resign if it loses the vote of confidence.
• Governance is based on majority party rule, with the Prime Minister serving as the leader of the party or coalition with the majority of seats in the lower house. Usually, council members belong to the same political party and share the same political ideology.  

Differences

• Despite having inherited the British parliamentary system, India has many distinct features. 
• Parliamentary sovereignty is a principle of the UK constitution. It gives Parliament the supreme legal authority to create or end any law. 
• There is also no provision for judicial review. 
• But India follows a constitutional government where the constitution limits the power of parliament to legislate. The constitution’s basic structure is the pillar of the Indian judiciary.Hence statement 1 is incorrect 

• India’s parliamentary sessions feature Zero Hour, a unique aspect where members can raise urgent matters without prior notice.Hence statement 3 is correct
•  The UK has no direct equivalent, although MPs can raise urgent issues through other parliamentary procedures. 

Source:

https://indianexpress.com/article/upsc-current-affairs/upsc-essentials/parliamentary-system-of-governance-india-upsc-9454638/

08.With reference to Armed Force Special Powers Act, Consider the following statements:

1. It grants certain special powers to the armed forces and provides them with special protections in certain notified areas that are disturbed or in dangerous condition such that the use of armed forces in aid of the civil powers is necessary.
2. It allows the armed forces to open fire, even causing death, make arrests without warrants on the basis of “reasonable suspicion”, and also search premises without warrants
3. Security personnel cannot be prosecuted or have legal proceedings initiated against them for these actions without the prior approval of the Centre.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only 
4. 1,2,3

Answer:  (d)1,2,3

In News:Sanction to prosecute armed forces personnel

Explanation:

• On December 4, 2021, a team of the Army’s 21 Para (Special Forces) launched an operation to ambush militants based on specific intelligence about the movement of militants in Nagaland’s Oting. However, six civilians were killed in the operation. 
• Subsequently, villagers clashed with the Army personnel involved in the operation, which led to the deaths of seven villagers and a soldier.
• The state government set up a special investigation team (SIT), which filed a chargesheet naming 30 Army personnel. The Army carried out its own internal inquiry into the incident, which did not find wrongdoing on the part of the personnel.
• In July 2022, the Supreme Court stayed the prosecution of the armed forces personnel, acting on petitions filed by the wives of the accused, stating that they were being prosecuted without the mandatory clearance for prosecution from the Centre. 
• The petitioners also demanded that the FIRs against the accused personnel should be quashed.
• The AFSPA grants certain special powers to the armed forces and provides them with special protections in certain notified areas that are “disturbed or [in] dangerous condition [such] that the use of armed forces in aid of the civil powers is necessary’’.Hence statement 1 is correct
• These “disturbed” areas, which could be a state or a part of it, have typically been those that are hit by militancy.
• AFSPA allows the armed forces to open fire, even causing death, make arrests without warrants on the basis of “reasonable suspicion”, and also search premises without warrants.Hence statement 2 is correct 
• Security personnel cannot be prosecuted or have legal proceedings initiated against them for these actions without the prior approval of the Centre.Hence statement 3 is correct
• “The Centre’s decision not to sanction prosecution of these personnel would have been based on these two primary factors.

Source:

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/nagaland-mon-sc-prosecute-army-9466454/

09. With reference to the acute encephalitis syndrome (AES), consider the following statements:

1. AES affects the central nervous system, mostly in children and young adults.
2. AES can be caused by viruses, bacteria, and fungi.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (d) Neither 1 nor 2

In News: Union Health Ministry, along with experts reviews the Chandipura virus cases and Acute Encephalitis Syndrome cases in Gujarat, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh

Explanation:

• DGHS, Union Health Ministry, and Director of NCDC, along with experts from AIIMS, Kalawati Saran Children’s Hospital, and National Institute of Mental Health & Neurosciences (NIMHANS), as well as officials from Central and State surveillance units, reviewed the Chandipura virus and Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES) cases in Gujarat, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh, recently.
• A multidisciplinary central team from NCDC, ICMR, and DAHD is being deployed to assist the State of Gujarat with these investigations.
• Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES) is a group of clinically similar neurologic manifestations caused by several different viruses, bacteria, fungus, parasites, spirochetes, chemical/ toxins, etc. The known viral causes of AES include JE, Dengue, HSV, CHPV, West Nile, etc. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Chandipura Virus (CHPV) is a member of the Rhabdoviridae family known to cause sporadic cases and outbreaks in western, central, and southern parts of the Country, especially during the monsoon season. It is transmitted by vectors such as sand flies and ticks.
• It is to be noted that vector control, hygiene, and awareness are the only measures available against the disease. The disease affects mostly children under 15 years of age and can be present with a febrile illness that may in some cases result in death. Although there is no specific treatment available for CHPV and management is symptomatic, timely referral of suspected AES cases to designated facilities can improve outcomes. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2034701

10. In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located? (UPSC 2023)

1. Andhra
2. Gandhara
3. Kalinga
4. Magadha

Answer: (a) Andhra

Explanation: 

Dhanyakataka is a town in Andhra Pradesh near present day Amaravati, where Shakyamuni Buddha taught the Heart Essence form of the Kalachakra Dharma to the Shambala kings.